Thursday, 29 October 2015
Tuesday, 27 October 2015
Previous year papers of NTSE Stage I
For previous years papers of NTSE Stage I of different States
please follow the given links
http://ntse.fiitjee.com/NTSEPaper.aspx#
http://www.examrace.com/NTSE/NTSE-Previous-Years-Papers/NTSE-Stage-II/
http://www.examrace.com/NTSE/NTSE-Previous-Years-Papers/
please follow the given links
http://ntse.fiitjee.com/NTSEPaper.aspx#
http://www.examrace.com/NTSE/NTSE-Previous-Years-Papers/NTSE-Stage-II/
http://www.examrace.com/NTSE/NTSE-Previous-Years-Papers/
Monday, 26 October 2015
Cut off for NTSE Stage II (2015) for General Category - 76.72
NCERT has not declared the cut off marks for NTSE Stage II (2015)
I filed a RTI, inquiring for the cut off marks,
got this answer -
The candidates have to qualify in MAT, SAT and Language Test separately with minimum qualifying marks of 40% for candidates from General Category and 35% for candidates from reserved category (SC/ST/PH). The over all merit is prepared on the basis of total score of MAT and SAT. Only those candidates who have obtained minimum qualifying marks in each paper are considered for merit. The aggregate marks (MAT & SAT) obtained by the last selected candidate as per the above criteria in General Category are 76.72
I filed a RTI, inquiring for the cut off marks,
got this answer -
The candidates have to qualify in MAT, SAT and Language Test separately with minimum qualifying marks of 40% for candidates from General Category and 35% for candidates from reserved category (SC/ST/PH). The over all merit is prepared on the basis of total score of MAT and SAT. Only those candidates who have obtained minimum qualifying marks in each paper are considered for merit. The aggregate marks (MAT & SAT) obtained by the last selected candidate as per the above criteria in General Category are 76.72
Sample Paper NTSE Stage I (2016)
The Paper consist of Three Setions
MAT - 50 Questions to be solved maximum in 45 minutes
LCT - 50 Questions to be solved maximum in 45 minutes
SAT - 100 Questions to be solved maximum in 90 minutes
a Minimum of 40 % marks is to be scored in every paper to qualify for the merit
Merit will be made from marks scored in MAT & SAT (150)
https://www.scribd.com/doc/287050093/Sample-Paper-NTSE-Stage-I-2016
MAT - 50 Questions to be solved maximum in 45 minutes
LCT - 50 Questions to be solved maximum in 45 minutes
SAT - 100 Questions to be solved maximum in 90 minutes
a Minimum of 40 % marks is to be scored in every paper to qualify for the merit
Merit will be made from marks scored in MAT & SAT (150)
https://www.scribd.com/doc/287050093/Sample-Paper-NTSE-Stage-I-2016
Friday, 23 October 2015
Outcomes of Democracy
Q.1. Studies on political and social inequalities in democracy show that :
(a) democracy and development go together
(b) inequalities exist in democracies
(c) inequalities do not exist under dictatorship
(d) dictatorship is better than democracy
Q.2. Why is there a delay in decision-making and implementation in a democracy?
(a) The government is afraid of taking decisions
(b) The government is hesitant in taking decisions
(c) Democracy is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation
(d) A democratic government is not interested in taking quick decisions
Q.3. Democracy is a better form of government because it ....
(a) promotes equality among citizens
(b) enhances the dignity of the individual
(c) provides a method to resolve conflicts
(d) all the above
Q.4. Which of the following statements is/ are correct?
(a) Most of the democracies have constitutions, they hold elections, have parties and
they guarantee rights to citizens
(b) Democracies are very much different from each other in terms of their social,
economic and cultural achievements
(c) All democracies are similar as far as social, economic and cultural
conditions are concerned
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.5. Which regime usually develops a procedure to conduct social competition and reduce the possibility of social tension?
(a) Democratic regime (b) Dictatorial regime
(c) Non-democratic regime (d) None of these
Q.6. Choose the correct statement.
(a) Democracies can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups
(b) Dictatorships can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups
(c) No regime can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups
(d) None of these
Q.7. Which factor is often missing from a non-democratic government?
(a) Efficiency (b) Effectiveness (c) Transparency (d) None of these
Q.8. Decisions taken by which type of government are likely to be
more acceptable to the people and more effective?
(a) Democratic government (b) Non-democratic government
(c) Military dictatorship (d) Theocracy
Q.9. Why is the cost of time that democracy pays for arriving at a decision worthwhile?
(a) Decisions are taken following due procedures
(b) Decisions are always in favour of people
(c) Decisions are more likely to be acceptable to the people and more effective
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
Q.10. On which of the following practices and institutions can the accountability of
government and involvement of people in decision-making process in a democracy be measured?
1 - regular, free and fair elections
2 - public debate on major policies and legislations
3 - citizens' right to information about government and its functioning
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.11. There is one respect in which a democratic government is certainly better than its alternatives. What is it?
(a) Efficiency (b) Decision-making (c) Legitimacy (d) None of these
Q.12. Which among the following has a higher rate of economic growth and development?
(a) Democracies (b) Dictatorships
(c) All non-democratic regimes (d) Monarchies
Q.13. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the distribution of
economic benefits in democracies?
(a) Incomes of both the rich and the poor have been increasing
(b) Incomes of both the rich and the poor have been declining
(c) Incomes of the rich have been increasing and those of the poor have been declining
(d) None of the above
Q.14. In which of these countries half of the population lives in poverty?
(a) India (b) Sri Lanka (c) Bangladesh (d) Pakistan
Q.15. Which regime is best suited to accommodate social diversity?
(a) A democratic regime (b) A non-democratic regime (c) Only a dictatorial regime (d) None of these
Q.16. Which regimes often turn a blind eye to or suppress internal social differences?
(a) Democratic regimes (b) Non-democratic regimes (c) Monarchy (d) Oligarchy
Q.17. Which among the following countries is a perfect example of accommodation of social diversity?
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Belgium (c) Saudi Arabia (d) Pakistan
Q.18. Democracy stands much superior to any other form of government in promoting
(a) economic growth (b) dignity and freedom of the individual
(c) economic equality (d) None of these
Q.19. Which of these values have the moral and legal sanctions in a democracy?
(a) Gender equality (b) Caste-based equality (c) Economic equality (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.20. In the context of democracies, which of the following ideas is correct?
Democracies have successfully
(a) eliminated conflicts among people
(b) eliminated economic inequalities among people
(c) eliminated differences of opinion about how marginalised sections are to be treated
(d) rejected the idea of political inequality
1.(b), 2.(c), 3.(d), 4.(d), 5.(a) 6.(c), 7.(c), 8.(a), 9.(c), 10.(d), 11.(c), 12.(b), 13.(c), 14.(c), 15.(a), 16.(b), 17.(b), 18.(b), 19.(d), 20.(d)
(a) democracy and development go together
(b) inequalities exist in democracies
(c) inequalities do not exist under dictatorship
(d) dictatorship is better than democracy
Q.2. Why is there a delay in decision-making and implementation in a democracy?
(a) The government is afraid of taking decisions
(b) The government is hesitant in taking decisions
(c) Democracy is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation
(d) A democratic government is not interested in taking quick decisions
Q.3. Democracy is a better form of government because it ....
(a) promotes equality among citizens
(b) enhances the dignity of the individual
(c) provides a method to resolve conflicts
(d) all the above
Q.4. Which of the following statements is/ are correct?
(a) Most of the democracies have constitutions, they hold elections, have parties and
they guarantee rights to citizens
(b) Democracies are very much different from each other in terms of their social,
economic and cultural achievements
(c) All democracies are similar as far as social, economic and cultural
conditions are concerned
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.5. Which regime usually develops a procedure to conduct social competition and reduce the possibility of social tension?
(a) Democratic regime (b) Dictatorial regime
(c) Non-democratic regime (d) None of these
Q.6. Choose the correct statement.
(a) Democracies can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups
(b) Dictatorships can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups
(c) No regime can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups
(d) None of these
Q.7. Which factor is often missing from a non-democratic government?
(a) Efficiency (b) Effectiveness (c) Transparency (d) None of these
Q.8. Decisions taken by which type of government are likely to be
more acceptable to the people and more effective?
(a) Democratic government (b) Non-democratic government
(c) Military dictatorship (d) Theocracy
Q.9. Why is the cost of time that democracy pays for arriving at a decision worthwhile?
(a) Decisions are taken following due procedures
(b) Decisions are always in favour of people
(c) Decisions are more likely to be acceptable to the people and more effective
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
Q.10. On which of the following practices and institutions can the accountability of
government and involvement of people in decision-making process in a democracy be measured?
1 - regular, free and fair elections
2 - public debate on major policies and legislations
3 - citizens' right to information about government and its functioning
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.11. There is one respect in which a democratic government is certainly better than its alternatives. What is it?
(a) Efficiency (b) Decision-making (c) Legitimacy (d) None of these
Q.12. Which among the following has a higher rate of economic growth and development?
(a) Democracies (b) Dictatorships
(c) All non-democratic regimes (d) Monarchies
Q.13. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the distribution of
economic benefits in democracies?
(a) Incomes of both the rich and the poor have been increasing
(b) Incomes of both the rich and the poor have been declining
(c) Incomes of the rich have been increasing and those of the poor have been declining
(d) None of the above
Q.14. In which of these countries half of the population lives in poverty?
(a) India (b) Sri Lanka (c) Bangladesh (d) Pakistan
Q.15. Which regime is best suited to accommodate social diversity?
(a) A democratic regime (b) A non-democratic regime (c) Only a dictatorial regime (d) None of these
Q.16. Which regimes often turn a blind eye to or suppress internal social differences?
(a) Democratic regimes (b) Non-democratic regimes (c) Monarchy (d) Oligarchy
Q.17. Which among the following countries is a perfect example of accommodation of social diversity?
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Belgium (c) Saudi Arabia (d) Pakistan
Q.18. Democracy stands much superior to any other form of government in promoting
(a) economic growth (b) dignity and freedom of the individual
(c) economic equality (d) None of these
Q.19. Which of these values have the moral and legal sanctions in a democracy?
(a) Gender equality (b) Caste-based equality (c) Economic equality (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.20. In the context of democracies, which of the following ideas is correct?
Democracies have successfully
(a) eliminated conflicts among people
(b) eliminated economic inequalities among people
(c) eliminated differences of opinion about how marginalised sections are to be treated
(d) rejected the idea of political inequality
1.(b), 2.(c), 3.(d), 4.(d), 5.(a) 6.(c), 7.(c), 8.(a), 9.(c), 10.(d), 11.(c), 12.(b), 13.(c), 14.(c), 15.(a), 16.(b), 17.(b), 18.(b), 19.(d), 20.(d)
Political Parties
Q.1. Which of these statements is incorrect?
(a) Parties reflect fundamental political unity in a society
(b) Parties try to persuade people why their policies are better than others
(c) They seek to implement these policies by winning popular support through elections
(d) All the above
Q.2. Parties put forward their _____ and _____________ and the voters choose from them.
(a) policies, programmes (b) rules, regulations (c) views, opinions (d) all the above
Q.3. Political parties exercise power through which of these functions?
(a) Parties contest elections (b) They play a decisive role in making laws for a country
(c) They form and run governments (d) All the above
Q.4. Who chooses the candidates for contesting elections in India?
(a) Members and supporters of the party (b) Top party leadership
(c) The existing government (d) None of these
Q.5. When was the Communist Party of India-Marxist (CPI-M) formed?
(a) 1952 (b) 1954 (c) 1962 (d) 1964
Q.6. Which of these statements is incorrect about CPI (M)?
(a) Supports socialism, secularism and democracy (b) Opposes imperialism and communalism
(c) Wants to secure socio-economic justice in India (d) None of the above
Q.7. In which of these states does the CPI (M) enjoy strong support?
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) West Bengal (d) Chhattisgarh
Q.8. An ______ is a signed document submitted to an officer, where a person makes a sworn statement regarding her personal information.
(a) affidavit (b) declaration (c) agreement (d) appeal
Q.9. Which of these statements is correct?
(a) Every party in the country has to register with the Election Commission
(b) The Commission treats all the parties equally
(c) It offers some special facilities to large and established parties
(d) All the above
Q.10. How many parties are registered with the Election Commission of India?
(a) 250 (b) 300 (c) 500 (d) more than 750
Q.11. Which of these countries has a one- party system?
(a) India (b) China (c) USA (d) UK
Q.12. Which of these is not a good option for a democratic state?
(a) One-party system (b) Two-party system (c) Multi-party system (d) None of the above
Q.13. Which of the following countries is the example of two-party system?
(a) USA (b) UK (c) India (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.14. Which of these alliances were there in 2004 parliamentary elections in India?
(a) National Democratic Alliance (b) The United Progressive Alliance
(c) Left Front (d) All the above
Q.15. Which of these is true regarding the party system of any country?
(a) The Constitution lays down party system (b) No country can choose its party system
(c) People choose their party system (d) Important leaders choose their party system
Q.16. Those parties which are given the special privilege of 'election symbol'
and other facilities are said to be :
(a) 'identified' by the Election Commission (b) 'recognised' by the Election Commission
(c) 'patronised' by the Election Commission (d) 'attached' by the Election Commission
Q.17. Which party is recognised as a 'State party'?
(a) A party that secures 6% of total votes in the Assembly election
(b) A party that secures at least 6% of the total votes in an election to the State Assembly
and wins at least 2 seats
(c) A party that wins 4 seats in the Assembly election
(d) None of the above
Q.18. How many recognised national parties were there in 2019?
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
Q.19. In which of these categories can the Indian National Congress be put?
(a) Centrist party (b) Rightist party (c) Leftist party (d) None of these
Q.20. When was the BJP founded?
(a) 1960 (b) 1970 (c) 1980 (d) 1990
Q.21. The BJP formed the government in 1998 as the leader of an alliance.
Name the alliance.
(a) National Democratic Alliance (b) United Progressive Alliance
(c) National Progressive Alliance (d) United Democratic Alliance
Q.22. When and under whose leadership was Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) formed?
(a) 1982, Mayawati (b) 1984, Kanshi Ram
(c) 1985, Mulayam Singh Yadav (d) 1986, Bhajanlal
Q.23. From the ideas and teaching of which of these leaders does BSP draw inspiration?
(a) Sahu Maharaj (b) Mahatma Phule and Ramaswami Naicker
(c) Babasaheb Ambedkar (d) All the above
Q.24. In which state does NCP have a major support?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Meghalaya (c) Manipur (d) Assam
Ans. (a)
Q.25. Which of these parties has national level political organisations?
(a) Samajwadi Party (b) Telugu Desam Party
(c) Rashtriya Janta Dal (d) None of the above
Q.26. Which one of the following is not a component of a political party ?
(a) The leaders (b) The followers (c) The active members (d) Women
Ans. (d)
Q.27. Which one of the following is true regarding a coalition government ?
(a) Only two parties form an alliance and contest elections.
(b) Several parties compete for power.
(c) The government is formed by two or more parties coming together.
(d) Several parties form an alliance and compete for power.
Q.28. Which one of the following is not true regarding the government order
that makes it mandatory for an election candidate to declare his details in an affidavit ? (a) It aims at reducing the influence of criminals in politics.
(b) It gives details of existing property and criminal cases pending against a candidate.
(c) It aims at reducing the influence of money in politics.
(d) The Election Commission checks these details and cancels the nomination papers of suspected criminals or if the information is false.
Q.29. Which one of the following is a better way of carrying out political
reforms in a democratic country?
(a) The legal changes (b) The constitutional changes
(c) The empowerment of people (d) The legislation for reforms
Q.30. Which one of the following is the guiding philosophy of the Bharatiya Janata Party ? (a) Bahujan Samaj (b) Revolutionary democracy
(c) Cultural nationalism (d) Modernity
Q.31. The condition for a political party to be recognized as a national party is :
(a) It must secure at least 6 percent of total votes in Lok Sabha elections
or Assembly elections in four states.
(b) It must win at least 4 seats in the Lok
Sabha (c) Both of these (d) None of these
Ans. (c)
Q.32. An alliance is formed when :
(a) two parties together form the government
(b) the state parties and national parties together form the government
(c) some parties join for the purpose of contesting elections and winning power in hands
(d) left and right parties join hands to form the government.
Q.33. Who is the founder of the Bahujan Samaj Party ?
(a) Kansi Ram (b) Mayawati (c) Bal Thakeray (d) Jayalalita
Q.34. Which one of the following is not a political party ?
(a) BJP (b) INC (c) BSP (d) BAMCEF
Q.35. Which of the following countries has a single-party system ?
(a) Pakistan (b) Nepal (c) China (d) Bangladesh
Q.36. Who among the following gives recognition to political parties in India?
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha (b) President of India
(c) Supreme Court (d) Election Commission
Q.37. Which one of the following countries has multi-party system?
(a) India (b) China (c) The United States of America (d) The United Kingdom
Q.38. The USA and UK are examples of :
(a) One-party system (b) Two-party system (c) Three-party system (d) Multi-party system
Q.39. Partisan means :
(a) Party which runs the government
(b) Affair of the state or the science of government
(c) A person who is strongly committed to a party
(d) A group of people who come together to promote common beliefs
Q.40. Which one of the following is not a national political party ?
(a) Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP). (b) Communist Party of India (CPI).
(c) Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) (d)Samajwadi Party (SP)
Q.41. Which of the following countries has a single-party system ?
(a) Pakistan (b) Nepal (c) U.S (d) China
Q.42. What is the guiding philosophy of the Bharatiya Janata Party ?
(a) Wants to build a strong and modern India (b) Uniform Civil Code
(c) Cultural nationalism (d) All the above
Q.43. Which one of the following political parties exposed secularism and welfare of weaker sections and minorities ?
(a) Communist Party of India (Marxist) (b) Bahujan Samaj Party
(c) Bharatiya Janata Party (d) Indian National Congress
Q.44. The Bahujan Samaj Party stands for the cause of :
(a) securing the interest of the oppressed people.
(b) securing the interest of the elite class.
(c) securing the interest of the capitalist class.
(d) securing the interest of the educated classes.
Q.45. A country which has a democratic form of government since its independence :
(a) Pakistan (b) India (c) Bhutan (d) Nepal
1.(d), 2.(a), 3.(d), 4.(b), 5.(d), 6.(d), 7.(c), 8.(a), 9.(d), 10.(d), 11.(b), 12.(a), 13.(d), 14.(d), 15.(b), 16.(b), 17.(b), 18.(c), 19.(a), 20.(c), 21.(a), 22.(b), 23.(d), 24.(a), 25.(d), 26.(d), 27.(c), 28.(d), 29.(c), 30.(c), 31.(c), 32.(c), 33.(a), 34.(d), 35.(c), 36.(d), 37.(a), 38.(b), 39.(c), 40.(d), 41.(d), 42.(d), 43.(b)
44.(a), 45.(b)
(a) Parties reflect fundamental political unity in a society
(b) Parties try to persuade people why their policies are better than others
(c) They seek to implement these policies by winning popular support through elections
(d) All the above
Q.2. Parties put forward their _____ and _____________ and the voters choose from them.
(a) policies, programmes (b) rules, regulations (c) views, opinions (d) all the above
Q.3. Political parties exercise power through which of these functions?
(a) Parties contest elections (b) They play a decisive role in making laws for a country
(c) They form and run governments (d) All the above
Q.4. Who chooses the candidates for contesting elections in India?
(a) Members and supporters of the party (b) Top party leadership
(c) The existing government (d) None of these
Q.5. When was the Communist Party of India-Marxist (CPI-M) formed?
(a) 1952 (b) 1954 (c) 1962 (d) 1964
Q.6. Which of these statements is incorrect about CPI (M)?
(a) Supports socialism, secularism and democracy (b) Opposes imperialism and communalism
(c) Wants to secure socio-economic justice in India (d) None of the above
Q.7. In which of these states does the CPI (M) enjoy strong support?
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) West Bengal (d) Chhattisgarh
Q.8. An ______ is a signed document submitted to an officer, where a person makes a sworn statement regarding her personal information.
(a) affidavit (b) declaration (c) agreement (d) appeal
Q.9. Which of these statements is correct?
(a) Every party in the country has to register with the Election Commission
(b) The Commission treats all the parties equally
(c) It offers some special facilities to large and established parties
(d) All the above
Q.10. How many parties are registered with the Election Commission of India?
(a) 250 (b) 300 (c) 500 (d) more than 750
Q.11. Which of these countries has a one- party system?
(a) India (b) China (c) USA (d) UK
Q.12. Which of these is not a good option for a democratic state?
(a) One-party system (b) Two-party system (c) Multi-party system (d) None of the above
Q.13. Which of the following countries is the example of two-party system?
(a) USA (b) UK (c) India (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.14. Which of these alliances were there in 2004 parliamentary elections in India?
(a) National Democratic Alliance (b) The United Progressive Alliance
(c) Left Front (d) All the above
Q.15. Which of these is true regarding the party system of any country?
(a) The Constitution lays down party system (b) No country can choose its party system
(c) People choose their party system (d) Important leaders choose their party system
Q.16. Those parties which are given the special privilege of 'election symbol'
and other facilities are said to be :
(a) 'identified' by the Election Commission (b) 'recognised' by the Election Commission
(c) 'patronised' by the Election Commission (d) 'attached' by the Election Commission
Q.17. Which party is recognised as a 'State party'?
(a) A party that secures 6% of total votes in the Assembly election
(b) A party that secures at least 6% of the total votes in an election to the State Assembly
and wins at least 2 seats
(c) A party that wins 4 seats in the Assembly election
(d) None of the above
Q.18. How many recognised national parties were there in 2019?
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
Q.19. In which of these categories can the Indian National Congress be put?
(a) Centrist party (b) Rightist party (c) Leftist party (d) None of these
Q.20. When was the BJP founded?
(a) 1960 (b) 1970 (c) 1980 (d) 1990
Q.21. The BJP formed the government in 1998 as the leader of an alliance.
Name the alliance.
(a) National Democratic Alliance (b) United Progressive Alliance
(c) National Progressive Alliance (d) United Democratic Alliance
Q.22. When and under whose leadership was Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) formed?
(a) 1982, Mayawati (b) 1984, Kanshi Ram
(c) 1985, Mulayam Singh Yadav (d) 1986, Bhajanlal
Q.23. From the ideas and teaching of which of these leaders does BSP draw inspiration?
(a) Sahu Maharaj (b) Mahatma Phule and Ramaswami Naicker
(c) Babasaheb Ambedkar (d) All the above
Q.24. In which state does NCP have a major support?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Meghalaya (c) Manipur (d) Assam
Ans. (a)
Q.25. Which of these parties has national level political organisations?
(a) Samajwadi Party (b) Telugu Desam Party
(c) Rashtriya Janta Dal (d) None of the above
Q.26. Which one of the following is not a component of a political party ?
(a) The leaders (b) The followers (c) The active members (d) Women
Ans. (d)
Q.27. Which one of the following is true regarding a coalition government ?
(a) Only two parties form an alliance and contest elections.
(b) Several parties compete for power.
(c) The government is formed by two or more parties coming together.
(d) Several parties form an alliance and compete for power.
Q.28. Which one of the following is not true regarding the government order
that makes it mandatory for an election candidate to declare his details in an affidavit ? (a) It aims at reducing the influence of criminals in politics.
(b) It gives details of existing property and criminal cases pending against a candidate.
(c) It aims at reducing the influence of money in politics.
(d) The Election Commission checks these details and cancels the nomination papers of suspected criminals or if the information is false.
Q.29. Which one of the following is a better way of carrying out political
reforms in a democratic country?
(a) The legal changes (b) The constitutional changes
(c) The empowerment of people (d) The legislation for reforms
Q.30. Which one of the following is the guiding philosophy of the Bharatiya Janata Party ? (a) Bahujan Samaj (b) Revolutionary democracy
(c) Cultural nationalism (d) Modernity
Q.31. The condition for a political party to be recognized as a national party is :
(a) It must secure at least 6 percent of total votes in Lok Sabha elections
or Assembly elections in four states.
(b) It must win at least 4 seats in the Lok
Sabha (c) Both of these (d) None of these
Ans. (c)
Q.32. An alliance is formed when :
(a) two parties together form the government
(b) the state parties and national parties together form the government
(c) some parties join for the purpose of contesting elections and winning power in hands
(d) left and right parties join hands to form the government.
Q.33. Who is the founder of the Bahujan Samaj Party ?
(a) Kansi Ram (b) Mayawati (c) Bal Thakeray (d) Jayalalita
Q.34. Which one of the following is not a political party ?
(a) BJP (b) INC (c) BSP (d) BAMCEF
Q.35. Which of the following countries has a single-party system ?
(a) Pakistan (b) Nepal (c) China (d) Bangladesh
Q.36. Who among the following gives recognition to political parties in India?
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha (b) President of India
(c) Supreme Court (d) Election Commission
Q.37. Which one of the following countries has multi-party system?
(a) India (b) China (c) The United States of America (d) The United Kingdom
Q.38. The USA and UK are examples of :
(a) One-party system (b) Two-party system (c) Three-party system (d) Multi-party system
Q.39. Partisan means :
(a) Party which runs the government
(b) Affair of the state or the science of government
(c) A person who is strongly committed to a party
(d) A group of people who come together to promote common beliefs
Q.40. Which one of the following is not a national political party ?
(a) Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP). (b) Communist Party of India (CPI).
(c) Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) (d)Samajwadi Party (SP)
Q.41. Which of the following countries has a single-party system ?
(a) Pakistan (b) Nepal (c) U.S (d) China
Q.42. What is the guiding philosophy of the Bharatiya Janata Party ?
(a) Wants to build a strong and modern India (b) Uniform Civil Code
(c) Cultural nationalism (d) All the above
Q.43. Which one of the following political parties exposed secularism and welfare of weaker sections and minorities ?
(a) Communist Party of India (Marxist) (b) Bahujan Samaj Party
(c) Bharatiya Janata Party (d) Indian National Congress
Q.44. The Bahujan Samaj Party stands for the cause of :
(a) securing the interest of the oppressed people.
(b) securing the interest of the elite class.
(c) securing the interest of the capitalist class.
(d) securing the interest of the educated classes.
Q.45. A country which has a democratic form of government since its independence :
(a) Pakistan (b) India (c) Bhutan (d) Nepal
1.(d), 2.(a), 3.(d), 4.(b), 5.(d), 6.(d), 7.(c), 8.(a), 9.(d), 10.(d), 11.(b), 12.(a), 13.(d), 14.(d), 15.(b), 16.(b), 17.(b), 18.(c), 19.(a), 20.(c), 21.(a), 22.(b), 23.(d), 24.(a), 25.(d), 26.(d), 27.(c), 28.(d), 29.(c), 30.(c), 31.(c), 32.(c), 33.(a), 34.(d), 35.(c), 36.(d), 37.(a), 38.(b), 39.(c), 40.(d), 41.(d), 42.(d), 43.(b)
44.(a), 45.(b)
Wednesday, 21 October 2015
Entrance Test of IESO 2016
IESO 2016
Entrance Test of IESO 2016 scheduled on 16th January 2016
http://www.geosocindia.org/index.php/ieso/pages/view/Entrance%20Exam
Entrance Test of IESO 2016 scheduled on 16th January 2016
http://www.geosocindia.org/index.php/ieso/pages/view/Entrance%20Exam
Population
Q.1. Who among the following are resource creating factors as well as resources themsleves?
(a) Animals (b) Plants (c) Human beings (d) Nature
Q.2. In which of the following instances does a natural event like a flood or Tsunami become a 'disaster'?
(a) Only when they affect a crowded village or town
(b) When the natural events are of great intensity
(c) When they happen in the environment (d) When they affect large uninhabited areas
Q.3. The numbers, distribution, growth and characteristics of which of the following provide the basic background for understanding and appreciating all aspects of the environment?
(a) Natural resource (b) Population (c) Flora (d) Fauna
Q.4. Why is it important to know how many people are there in a country, where do they live, how and why their numbers are increasing and what are their characteristics?
(a) Population is the pivotal element in social studies
(b) To exploit the natural resources of the country
(c) Human beings are producers and consumers of resources
(d) None of the above
Q.5. From which of the following do we get information regarding the population of our country?
(a) Textbooks (b) Survey of India (c) Census (d) Geological Survey of India
Q.6. Which of the following is a major concern of study about the population of a country?
(a) Population size and distribution
(b) Population growth and processes of population change
(c) Characteristics or qualities of the population (d) All the above
Q.7. India accounts for what percentage of the world population?
(a) 1.02 per cent (b) 2.4 per cent (c) 3.28 per cent (d) 17.5 per cent
Q.8. Which is the most populous state of India?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Rajasthan
Q.9. Which state has the lowest population ?
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Himachal Pradesh (c) Goa (d) Sikkim
Q.10. Which of the following union territories of India has a very low population?
(a) Andaman and Nicobar (b) Lakshadweep (c) Chandigarh (d) Pondicherry
Q.11. Almost half of India's population lives in just five states. Which one of the following is not one of these five populous states?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Bihar (c) West Bengal (d) Arunachal Pradesh
Q.12. What percentage of India's population resides in the most populated state of India, Uttar
Pradesh?
(a) 31.2 per cent (b) 16.16 per cent (c) 9.42 per cent (d) 7.41 per cent
Q.13. What percentage of India's population lives in Rajasthan, the biggest state in terms of area?
(a) 16.16 per cent (b) 8.02 per cent (c) 7.79 per cent (d) 6 per cent
Q.14. The average number of persons per unit area, such as a square kilometre, is termed as which of the following?
(a) Population distribution (b) Population density (c) Absolute population (d) Population growth
Q.15. Which one of the following countries has higher population density than India?
(a) China (b) Bangladesh (c) Canada (d) Korea
Q.16. Which of the following figures shows the population density of India?
(a) 1028 million persons (b) 3.28 million square km (c) 382 persons per sq km (d) 13 persons per sq km
Q.17. Which one of the following states has very high population density?
(a) West Bengal (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Rajasthan (d) Arunachal Pradesh
Q.18. Which of the following states of India has very low population density?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Sikkim (c) Orissa (d) Bihar
Q.19. Which of the following states of India has a moderate population density?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Rajasthan
(c) Chhattisgarh (d) Tamil Nadu
Q.20. Which of the following southern states has a high population density?
(a) Karnataka (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Kerala (d) Tamil Nadu
Q.21. Which of the following reasons is responsible for uneven population distribution in
India?
(a) Variations in topography or relief in different parts of India
(b) Variations in climate and rainfall distribution
(c) Variations in the rate of industrialisation and urbanisation
(d) All the above
Q.22. Which of the following states has a population density below 100 persons per square kilometre?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Uttarakhand (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Nagaland
Q.23. Which of the following states has a population density below 250 persons per square km?
(a) Punjab (b) Haryana (c) Chhattisgarh (d) Jharkhand
Q.24. Which one of the following is not one of the factors that resulted in high density of population in the Northern Plains?
(a) Flat plains with fertile soil (b) Rich mineral deposits
(c) Abundant rainfall (d) Suitable conditions for agriculture
Q.25. Which of the following statements about population is correct?
(a) Population is a dynamic phenomenon
(b) The number, distribution and composition of population are static
(c) Population of a country always increases with time
(d) Migrations do not affect the population of a country
Q.26. The change in the number of inhabitants of a country during a specific period of time is referred to by which of the following terms?
(a) Density of population (b) Age composition
(c) Population growth (d) Absolute population
Q.27. The magnitude of population growth refers to which of the following?
(a) The number of persons added each year or decade
(b) The rate or the pace of population increase
(c) The total population of an area (d) The number of females per thousand males
Q.28. The rate or pace of population increase per year is referred to as which of the following?
(a) Absolute increase (b) Magnitude of increase
(c) Annual growth rate (d) Population change
Q.29. Which of the following statements about population growth between 1951 to 1981 is true?
(a) The annual rate of population growth was gradually decreasing (b) The annual rate of population growth was steadily increasing (c) The annual rate of population growth was static
(d) Census reports were not available for all decades
Q.30. Which of the following changes in growth of population has been noted since 1981?
(a) The annual rate of population growth continued to increase steadily
(b) The annual rate of population growth shot up suddenly
(c) The growth of population could not be computed due to absence of census
(d) The rate of growth of population started declining gradully
Q.31. Which among the following is included in the policy framework of NPP 2000 ?
(a) imparting free and compulsory school education upto 14 years age
(b) reducing infant mortality rate
(c) acheiving universal immunisation of children against all vaccine preventable diseases
(d) all of these
Q.32. Which movement of the people across regions and teritories does not change the size of
the population ?
(a) Internal (b) External (c) Death rate (d) Birth rate
Q.33. What is the rank of India among the population of different countries of the world?
(a) First (b) Second (c) Third (d) Fourth
Q.34. The main cause for the high growth of our population is
(a) Rise in death rate (b) Decrease in birth rate (c) Decline of death rate (d) None of these
Q.35. What is the average sex ratio of India as per 2011 census ?
(a) 900 (b) 933 (c) 940 (d) None of these
Q.36. What is sex ratio?
(a) Number of females per thousand males (b) Number of females per hundred males
(c) The study of population growth (d) Difference between birth rate and death rate
Q.37. Which one of the following is the most significant feature of the Indian population?
(a) Declining birth rate (b) Improvement in the literacy level
(c) The size of its adolescent population (d) Improvement in health conditions
Q.38. What was the population density of India according to 2001?
(a) 124 person/km2 (b) 224 person/km2 (c) 324 person/km2 (d) 24 person/km2
Q.39. A large proportion of children in a population is a result of :
(a) High birth rate (b) High death rate (c) High life expectancies (d) More married couples
Q.40. The number of people in different age groups is referred as :
(a) Sex ratio (b) Age composition (c) adolescent population (d) occupational structure
Q.41. Which is the most populous country of the world?
(a) India (b) United States (c) China (d) Russia
Q.42. As per 2001 census, which of the following states has the least density of population?
(a) West Bengal (b) Bihar (c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Uttar Pradesh
Q.43. Name the Union Territory having the highest density of population.
(a) Chandigarh (b) Delhi (c) Puducherry (Pondicherry) (d) Daman and Diu
Q.44. In how many years is the official enumeration of population carried out for census?
(a) 1 year (b) 5 years (c) 10 years (d) 2 years
Q.45. Which of the following is an important social indicator to measure the extent of equality between males and females in a society at a given time?
(a) Age Composition (b) Literacy Rate (c) Sex Ratio (d) Death Rate
Q.46. Which of the following factors are responsible for sparse population?
(a) Flat plains and abundant rainfall (b) Rugged terrain and unfavourable climate
(c) Fertile soil and abundant rain fall (d) Rugged terrain and favourable climate
Q.47. Name the state having the highest percentage of literacy level :
(a) Kerala (b) Maharashtra (c) Punjab (d) West Bengal
Q.48. What year is considered a great demographic divide in India?
(a) 1911 (b) 1921 (c) 1931 (d) 1751
Q.49. The magnitude of population growth refers to :
(a) The total population of an area (b) The number of persons added each year
(c) The rate at which the population increases (d) The number of females per thousand males
Q.50. Which state is the most populous state according to 2001 Census?
(a) Bihar (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) West Bengal (d) Madhya Pradesh
Q.51. Birth rate is the number of live births per thousand persons in :
(a) 10 years (b) 5 years (c) 2 years (d) 1 year
Q.52. When did the National Population Policy come into effect?
(a) 2001 (b) 1947 (c) 1952 (d) 2000
Q.53. The country that has a higher population density than India is :
(a) China (b) USA (c) Britain (d) Bangladesh
Q.54. The total area of India accounts for how much percent of the world's area?
(a) 2.4 percent (b) 16.7 percent (c) 3.28 percent (d) 1.02 percent
Q.55. Which of the following migration of population does not change the size of the population?
(a) External migration (b) Internal migration
(c) International migration (d) National migration
1.(c), 2.(a), 3.(b), 4.(c), 5.(c), 6.(d), 7.(d), 8.(b), 9.(d), 10.(b), 11.(d), 12.(b), 13.(d), 14.(b), 15.(b),, 16.(c), 17.(a), 18.(a), 19.(d), 20.(c), 21.(d), 22.(a), 23.(c), 24.(b), 25.(a). 26.(c), 27.(a), 28.(c), 29.(b), 30.(d), 31.(d), 32.(a), 33.(b), 34.(c), 35.(c), 36.(a), 37.(a), 38.(c), 39.(a), 40.(b), 41.(c), 42.(c), 43.(b),, 44.(c), 45.(c), 46.(b), 47.(a), 48.(b), 49.(b), 50.(b), 51.(d), 52.(d), 53.(d), 54.(a), 55.(b)
(a) Animals (b) Plants (c) Human beings (d) Nature
Q.2. In which of the following instances does a natural event like a flood or Tsunami become a 'disaster'?
(a) Only when they affect a crowded village or town
(b) When the natural events are of great intensity
(c) When they happen in the environment (d) When they affect large uninhabited areas
Q.3. The numbers, distribution, growth and characteristics of which of the following provide the basic background for understanding and appreciating all aspects of the environment?
(a) Natural resource (b) Population (c) Flora (d) Fauna
Q.4. Why is it important to know how many people are there in a country, where do they live, how and why their numbers are increasing and what are their characteristics?
(a) Population is the pivotal element in social studies
(b) To exploit the natural resources of the country
(c) Human beings are producers and consumers of resources
(d) None of the above
Q.5. From which of the following do we get information regarding the population of our country?
(a) Textbooks (b) Survey of India (c) Census (d) Geological Survey of India
Q.6. Which of the following is a major concern of study about the population of a country?
(a) Population size and distribution
(b) Population growth and processes of population change
(c) Characteristics or qualities of the population (d) All the above
Q.7. India accounts for what percentage of the world population?
(a) 1.02 per cent (b) 2.4 per cent (c) 3.28 per cent (d) 17.5 per cent
Q.8. Which is the most populous state of India?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Rajasthan
Q.9. Which state has the lowest population ?
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Himachal Pradesh (c) Goa (d) Sikkim
Q.10. Which of the following union territories of India has a very low population?
(a) Andaman and Nicobar (b) Lakshadweep (c) Chandigarh (d) Pondicherry
Q.11. Almost half of India's population lives in just five states. Which one of the following is not one of these five populous states?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Bihar (c) West Bengal (d) Arunachal Pradesh
Q.12. What percentage of India's population resides in the most populated state of India, Uttar
Pradesh?
(a) 31.2 per cent (b) 16.16 per cent (c) 9.42 per cent (d) 7.41 per cent
Q.13. What percentage of India's population lives in Rajasthan, the biggest state in terms of area?
(a) 16.16 per cent (b) 8.02 per cent (c) 7.79 per cent (d) 6 per cent
Q.14. The average number of persons per unit area, such as a square kilometre, is termed as which of the following?
(a) Population distribution (b) Population density (c) Absolute population (d) Population growth
Q.15. Which one of the following countries has higher population density than India?
(a) China (b) Bangladesh (c) Canada (d) Korea
Q.16. Which of the following figures shows the population density of India?
(a) 1028 million persons (b) 3.28 million square km (c) 382 persons per sq km (d) 13 persons per sq km
Q.17. Which one of the following states has very high population density?
(a) West Bengal (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Rajasthan (d) Arunachal Pradesh
Q.18. Which of the following states of India has very low population density?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Sikkim (c) Orissa (d) Bihar
Q.19. Which of the following states of India has a moderate population density?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Rajasthan
(c) Chhattisgarh (d) Tamil Nadu
Q.20. Which of the following southern states has a high population density?
(a) Karnataka (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Kerala (d) Tamil Nadu
Q.21. Which of the following reasons is responsible for uneven population distribution in
India?
(a) Variations in topography or relief in different parts of India
(b) Variations in climate and rainfall distribution
(c) Variations in the rate of industrialisation and urbanisation
(d) All the above
Q.22. Which of the following states has a population density below 100 persons per square kilometre?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Uttarakhand (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Nagaland
Q.23. Which of the following states has a population density below 250 persons per square km?
(a) Punjab (b) Haryana (c) Chhattisgarh (d) Jharkhand
Q.24. Which one of the following is not one of the factors that resulted in high density of population in the Northern Plains?
(a) Flat plains with fertile soil (b) Rich mineral deposits
(c) Abundant rainfall (d) Suitable conditions for agriculture
Q.25. Which of the following statements about population is correct?
(a) Population is a dynamic phenomenon
(b) The number, distribution and composition of population are static
(c) Population of a country always increases with time
(d) Migrations do not affect the population of a country
Q.26. The change in the number of inhabitants of a country during a specific period of time is referred to by which of the following terms?
(a) Density of population (b) Age composition
(c) Population growth (d) Absolute population
Q.27. The magnitude of population growth refers to which of the following?
(a) The number of persons added each year or decade
(b) The rate or the pace of population increase
(c) The total population of an area (d) The number of females per thousand males
Q.28. The rate or pace of population increase per year is referred to as which of the following?
(a) Absolute increase (b) Magnitude of increase
(c) Annual growth rate (d) Population change
Q.29. Which of the following statements about population growth between 1951 to 1981 is true?
(a) The annual rate of population growth was gradually decreasing (b) The annual rate of population growth was steadily increasing (c) The annual rate of population growth was static
(d) Census reports were not available for all decades
Q.30. Which of the following changes in growth of population has been noted since 1981?
(a) The annual rate of population growth continued to increase steadily
(b) The annual rate of population growth shot up suddenly
(c) The growth of population could not be computed due to absence of census
(d) The rate of growth of population started declining gradully
Q.31. Which among the following is included in the policy framework of NPP 2000 ?
(a) imparting free and compulsory school education upto 14 years age
(b) reducing infant mortality rate
(c) acheiving universal immunisation of children against all vaccine preventable diseases
(d) all of these
Q.32. Which movement of the people across regions and teritories does not change the size of
the population ?
(a) Internal (b) External (c) Death rate (d) Birth rate
Q.33. What is the rank of India among the population of different countries of the world?
(a) First (b) Second (c) Third (d) Fourth
Q.34. The main cause for the high growth of our population is
(a) Rise in death rate (b) Decrease in birth rate (c) Decline of death rate (d) None of these
Q.35. What is the average sex ratio of India as per 2011 census ?
(a) 900 (b) 933 (c) 940 (d) None of these
Q.36. What is sex ratio?
(a) Number of females per thousand males (b) Number of females per hundred males
(c) The study of population growth (d) Difference between birth rate and death rate
Q.37. Which one of the following is the most significant feature of the Indian population?
(a) Declining birth rate (b) Improvement in the literacy level
(c) The size of its adolescent population (d) Improvement in health conditions
Q.38. What was the population density of India according to 2001?
(a) 124 person/km2 (b) 224 person/km2 (c) 324 person/km2 (d) 24 person/km2
Q.39. A large proportion of children in a population is a result of :
(a) High birth rate (b) High death rate (c) High life expectancies (d) More married couples
Q.40. The number of people in different age groups is referred as :
(a) Sex ratio (b) Age composition (c) adolescent population (d) occupational structure
Q.41. Which is the most populous country of the world?
(a) India (b) United States (c) China (d) Russia
Q.42. As per 2001 census, which of the following states has the least density of population?
(a) West Bengal (b) Bihar (c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Uttar Pradesh
Q.43. Name the Union Territory having the highest density of population.
(a) Chandigarh (b) Delhi (c) Puducherry (Pondicherry) (d) Daman and Diu
Q.44. In how many years is the official enumeration of population carried out for census?
(a) 1 year (b) 5 years (c) 10 years (d) 2 years
Q.45. Which of the following is an important social indicator to measure the extent of equality between males and females in a society at a given time?
(a) Age Composition (b) Literacy Rate (c) Sex Ratio (d) Death Rate
Q.46. Which of the following factors are responsible for sparse population?
(a) Flat plains and abundant rainfall (b) Rugged terrain and unfavourable climate
(c) Fertile soil and abundant rain fall (d) Rugged terrain and favourable climate
Q.47. Name the state having the highest percentage of literacy level :
(a) Kerala (b) Maharashtra (c) Punjab (d) West Bengal
Q.48. What year is considered a great demographic divide in India?
(a) 1911 (b) 1921 (c) 1931 (d) 1751
Q.49. The magnitude of population growth refers to :
(a) The total population of an area (b) The number of persons added each year
(c) The rate at which the population increases (d) The number of females per thousand males
Q.50. Which state is the most populous state according to 2001 Census?
(a) Bihar (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) West Bengal (d) Madhya Pradesh
Q.51. Birth rate is the number of live births per thousand persons in :
(a) 10 years (b) 5 years (c) 2 years (d) 1 year
Q.52. When did the National Population Policy come into effect?
(a) 2001 (b) 1947 (c) 1952 (d) 2000
Q.53. The country that has a higher population density than India is :
(a) China (b) USA (c) Britain (d) Bangladesh
Q.54. The total area of India accounts for how much percent of the world's area?
(a) 2.4 percent (b) 16.7 percent (c) 3.28 percent (d) 1.02 percent
Q.55. Which of the following migration of population does not change the size of the population?
(a) External migration (b) Internal migration
(c) International migration (d) National migration
1.(c), 2.(a), 3.(b), 4.(c), 5.(c), 6.(d), 7.(d), 8.(b), 9.(d), 10.(b), 11.(d), 12.(b), 13.(d), 14.(b), 15.(b),, 16.(c), 17.(a), 18.(a), 19.(d), 20.(c), 21.(d), 22.(a), 23.(c), 24.(b), 25.(a). 26.(c), 27.(a), 28.(c), 29.(b), 30.(d), 31.(d), 32.(a), 33.(b), 34.(c), 35.(c), 36.(a), 37.(a), 38.(c), 39.(a), 40.(b), 41.(c), 42.(c), 43.(b),, 44.(c), 45.(c), 46.(b), 47.(a), 48.(b), 49.(b), 50.(b), 51.(d), 52.(d), 53.(d), 54.(a), 55.(b)
Tuesday, 20 October 2015
Working of the Institution
Q.1. What is meant by 'Office Memorandum'?
(a) Order issued by the Government of India (b) Memoirs of the leaders of the past
(c) Important defence documents (d) None of the above
Q.2. When was the Second Backward Class Commission appointed?
(a) 1989 (b) 1979 (c) 1999 (d) 2001
Q.3. Why did people react strongly to the Mandal Commission Report?
(a) It left out many backward communities (b) It affected thousands of job opportunities
(c) Some high castes wanted to be included in it (d) Both (a) and (c)
Q.4. What do the Civil Servants do?
(a) They take important policy decisions (b) They implement the ministers' decisions
(c) They settle the disputes (d) None of the above
Q.5. What is 'Parliament'?
(a) Assembly of elected representatives at the national level
(b) A body consisting of appointed ministers
(c) Body comprising judges (d) Assembly of only appointed members
Q.6. Which of these are correct so far as powers of the Parliament are concerned, apart from making laws?
(a) Exercising control over the government (b) Controlling finance of the country
(c) Serving as the highest forum of discussion and debate
(d) All the above
Q.7. Apart from Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, who else constitutes the Parliament?
(a) Prime Minister (b) Chief Minister (c) Governor (d) President
Q.8. What happens if there is a difference of opinion between Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha over an ordinary bill?
(a) The President decides the matter (b) The will of Rajya Sabha prevails
(c) There is a joint sitting of the two Houses (d) The bill is cancelled
Q.9. For how long can the Rajya Sabha delay a Money Bill?
(a) 15 days (b) 1 month (c) 3 months (d) 14 days
Q.10. Who is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha?
(a) Speaker (b) Vice President (c) President (d) Prime Minister
Q.11. Two features of Indian judicial system are:
(a) Independent Judiciary (b) Integrated Judiciary
(c) Dependent Judiciary (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.12. Which of these disputes can the Supreme Court take?
(a) Between citizens of the country (b) Between citizens and the government
(c) Between two or more state governments (d) All the above
Q.13. Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts?
(a) President, according to his own wishes (b) President, on the advice of the PM
(c) President on the advice of the PM in consultation with the Chief Justice of India (d) None of the above
Q.14. How can a judge of the Supreme Court be removed?
(a) By the Supreme Court itself (b) By the Parliament through impeachment
(c) By the President alone (d) By the Police
Q.15. What is the power of the Supreme Court to judge the constitutional validity of a law passed by the Parliament or an action of the Executive called?
(a) Judicial Revision (b) Judicial Review (c) Judicial Consent (d) Judicial Permission
Q.16. Which of the following institutions can make changes to the existing law of the country?
(a) The Supreme Court (b) The President (c) The Prime Minister (d) The Parliament
Q.17. What does the Supreme Court say over the Parliament's power of amendment of the Constitution?
(a) Parliament can amend the entire Constitution
(b) Parliament can amend only the basic structure of the Constitution (c) Parliament cannot amend the basic structure of the Constitution (d) None of the above
Q.18. Which body acts as the guardian of Fundamental Rights?
(a) District Courts (b) Supreme Court
(c) Election Commission (d) Legislature
Q.19. What is a Public Interest Litigation?
(a) Filing a case in the court in the interest of the public (b) Reviewing of Supreme Court judgements
(c) Procedure of removal of a judge (d) None of the above
Q.20. What are the two types of 'Executives' in India?
(a) Political Executive (b) Permanent Executive (c) Judicial Executive (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.21. Why does the political executive have more powers than the permanent executive?
(a) Because hardly any expertise is required in taking policy decisions
(b) Because political executive consists of the direct representatives of the people
(c) Political leaders are more educated (d) None of the above
Q.22. Who holds the most important and powerful position in the government?
(a) President (b) Vice President (c) Prime Minister (d) Speaker
Q.23. Whom does the President appoint as the Prime Minister?
(a) Anyone he likes (b) Leader of the majority party
(c) MP who has secured the largest number of votes (d) None of the above
Q.24. What is the tenure of office of the Prime Minister?
(a) 5 years (b) 6 years
(c) As long as he wants (d) He does not have a fixed tenure
Q.25. What is the government formed by an alliance of two or more political parties called?
(a) Cooperation government (b) Coalition government
(c) Consensus government (d) Cooperative government
Q.26. Who among the following is a part of the political executive?
(a) Home Minister (b) District Collector
(c) Secretary of the Ministry of Home Affairs (d) Director General of Police
Q.27. Which organ of the government has the power to interpret the Constitution?
(a) Supreme Court (b) District Court (c) High Court (d) Both (a) and (c)
Q.28. About how many ministers are there in the Cabinet?
(a) 80 (b) 60 (c) 20 (d) 10
Q.29. Which of these options is/are correct regarding the powers of the Prime Minister?
(a) He chairs the Cabinet meetings (b) He distributes work to the different departments
(c) He can dismiss ministers (d) All the above
Q.30. What is the position of the President?
(a) Nominal head of the state (b) Real head of the state
(c) Hereditary head of the state (d) None of the above
Q.31. Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) The Judiciary safeguards the laws (b) The Legislature implements the laws
(c) The political executives are more powerful than the permanent executives
(d) The permanent executives comprises the civil servants
Q.32. The Council of Ministers at the centre is responsible to :
(a) The President (b) The Prime Minister
(c) The Rajya Sabha (d) The Lok Sabha
Q.33. The president of India is elected by
(a) Direet Election by citizens ... 18 yers of age
(b) Indirect Election by the Electoral College
(c) The Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers
(d) None of the above
Q.34. President of India is :
(a) Head of the Government (b) Head of the State
(c) Head of the parliament (d) None of the above
Q.35. The judges of Supreme Court are appointed by :
(a) President (b) Prime Minister (c) Chief Justice (d) Law Minister
1.(a), 2.(b), 3.(b), 4.(b), 5.(a), 6.(d), 7.(d), 8.(c), 9.(d), 10.(a), 11.(d), 12.(d), 13.(c), 14.(b), 15.(b)
16.(d), 17.(c), 18.(b), 19.(a), 20.(d), 21.(b), 22.(c), 23.(b), 24.(d), 25.(b), 26.(a), 27.(a), 28.(c), 29.(d)
30.(a), 31.(b), 32.(d), 33.(b), 34.(b), 35.(a)
(a) Order issued by the Government of India (b) Memoirs of the leaders of the past
(c) Important defence documents (d) None of the above
Q.2. When was the Second Backward Class Commission appointed?
(a) 1989 (b) 1979 (c) 1999 (d) 2001
Q.3. Why did people react strongly to the Mandal Commission Report?
(a) It left out many backward communities (b) It affected thousands of job opportunities
(c) Some high castes wanted to be included in it (d) Both (a) and (c)
Q.4. What do the Civil Servants do?
(a) They take important policy decisions (b) They implement the ministers' decisions
(c) They settle the disputes (d) None of the above
Q.5. What is 'Parliament'?
(a) Assembly of elected representatives at the national level
(b) A body consisting of appointed ministers
(c) Body comprising judges (d) Assembly of only appointed members
Q.6. Which of these are correct so far as powers of the Parliament are concerned, apart from making laws?
(a) Exercising control over the government (b) Controlling finance of the country
(c) Serving as the highest forum of discussion and debate
(d) All the above
Q.7. Apart from Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, who else constitutes the Parliament?
(a) Prime Minister (b) Chief Minister (c) Governor (d) President
Q.8. What happens if there is a difference of opinion between Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha over an ordinary bill?
(a) The President decides the matter (b) The will of Rajya Sabha prevails
(c) There is a joint sitting of the two Houses (d) The bill is cancelled
Q.9. For how long can the Rajya Sabha delay a Money Bill?
(a) 15 days (b) 1 month (c) 3 months (d) 14 days
Q.10. Who is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha?
(a) Speaker (b) Vice President (c) President (d) Prime Minister
Q.11. Two features of Indian judicial system are:
(a) Independent Judiciary (b) Integrated Judiciary
(c) Dependent Judiciary (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.12. Which of these disputes can the Supreme Court take?
(a) Between citizens of the country (b) Between citizens and the government
(c) Between two or more state governments (d) All the above
Q.13. Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts?
(a) President, according to his own wishes (b) President, on the advice of the PM
(c) President on the advice of the PM in consultation with the Chief Justice of India (d) None of the above
Q.14. How can a judge of the Supreme Court be removed?
(a) By the Supreme Court itself (b) By the Parliament through impeachment
(c) By the President alone (d) By the Police
Q.15. What is the power of the Supreme Court to judge the constitutional validity of a law passed by the Parliament or an action of the Executive called?
(a) Judicial Revision (b) Judicial Review (c) Judicial Consent (d) Judicial Permission
Q.16. Which of the following institutions can make changes to the existing law of the country?
(a) The Supreme Court (b) The President (c) The Prime Minister (d) The Parliament
Q.17. What does the Supreme Court say over the Parliament's power of amendment of the Constitution?
(a) Parliament can amend the entire Constitution
(b) Parliament can amend only the basic structure of the Constitution (c) Parliament cannot amend the basic structure of the Constitution (d) None of the above
Q.18. Which body acts as the guardian of Fundamental Rights?
(a) District Courts (b) Supreme Court
(c) Election Commission (d) Legislature
Q.19. What is a Public Interest Litigation?
(a) Filing a case in the court in the interest of the public (b) Reviewing of Supreme Court judgements
(c) Procedure of removal of a judge (d) None of the above
Q.20. What are the two types of 'Executives' in India?
(a) Political Executive (b) Permanent Executive (c) Judicial Executive (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.21. Why does the political executive have more powers than the permanent executive?
(a) Because hardly any expertise is required in taking policy decisions
(b) Because political executive consists of the direct representatives of the people
(c) Political leaders are more educated (d) None of the above
Q.22. Who holds the most important and powerful position in the government?
(a) President (b) Vice President (c) Prime Minister (d) Speaker
Q.23. Whom does the President appoint as the Prime Minister?
(a) Anyone he likes (b) Leader of the majority party
(c) MP who has secured the largest number of votes (d) None of the above
Q.24. What is the tenure of office of the Prime Minister?
(a) 5 years (b) 6 years
(c) As long as he wants (d) He does not have a fixed tenure
Q.25. What is the government formed by an alliance of two or more political parties called?
(a) Cooperation government (b) Coalition government
(c) Consensus government (d) Cooperative government
Q.26. Who among the following is a part of the political executive?
(a) Home Minister (b) District Collector
(c) Secretary of the Ministry of Home Affairs (d) Director General of Police
Q.27. Which organ of the government has the power to interpret the Constitution?
(a) Supreme Court (b) District Court (c) High Court (d) Both (a) and (c)
Q.28. About how many ministers are there in the Cabinet?
(a) 80 (b) 60 (c) 20 (d) 10
Q.29. Which of these options is/are correct regarding the powers of the Prime Minister?
(a) He chairs the Cabinet meetings (b) He distributes work to the different departments
(c) He can dismiss ministers (d) All the above
Q.30. What is the position of the President?
(a) Nominal head of the state (b) Real head of the state
(c) Hereditary head of the state (d) None of the above
Q.31. Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) The Judiciary safeguards the laws (b) The Legislature implements the laws
(c) The political executives are more powerful than the permanent executives
(d) The permanent executives comprises the civil servants
Q.32. The Council of Ministers at the centre is responsible to :
(a) The President (b) The Prime Minister
(c) The Rajya Sabha (d) The Lok Sabha
Q.33. The president of India is elected by
(a) Direet Election by citizens ... 18 yers of age
(b) Indirect Election by the Electoral College
(c) The Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers
(d) None of the above
Q.34. President of India is :
(a) Head of the Government (b) Head of the State
(c) Head of the parliament (d) None of the above
Q.35. The judges of Supreme Court are appointed by :
(a) President (b) Prime Minister (c) Chief Justice (d) Law Minister
1.(a), 2.(b), 3.(b), 4.(b), 5.(a), 6.(d), 7.(d), 8.(c), 9.(d), 10.(a), 11.(d), 12.(d), 13.(c), 14.(b), 15.(b)
16.(d), 17.(c), 18.(b), 19.(a), 20.(d), 21.(b), 22.(c), 23.(b), 24.(d), 25.(b), 26.(a), 27.(a), 28.(c), 29.(d)
30.(a), 31.(b), 32.(d), 33.(b), 34.(b), 35.(a)
Constitutional Design
Q.1. On what charges was Nelson Mandela sentenced to life imprisonment?
(a) For treason (b) For breaking the laws
(c) For corruption charges (d) For possessing illegal property
Q.2. What is apartheid?
(a) Election in proportion to population
(b) Official policy of discrimination against the Blacks
(c) Equality among all
(d) None of the above
Q.3. In which way did the system of apartheid discriminate among the South Africans?
(a) Restricted social contacts between the races
(b) Segregation of public facilities
(c) Created race-specific job categories
(d) All the above
Q.4. Name the organisation that led the struggle against the policies of segregation.
(a) African National Conference (b) African Neutral Congress
(c) African National Congress (d) All National Party
Q.5. Why did the white regime decide to change its policies?
(a) Increase in protests and struggles
(b) Government realised that repression was becoming difficult
(c) Rise of sympathetic attitude in government for the blacks
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.6. Which of these did not form a part of the changed attitude of South African government? [Important]
(a) Discriminatory laws were repealed
(b) Ban on political parties and media was lifted (c) Nelson Mandela was freed from imprisonment (d) More discriminatory laws were passed
Q.7. When did South Africa become a democratic country?
(a) 26 April, 1995 (b) 26 April, 1994 (c) 24 March, 1994 (d) 27 April, 1996
Q.8. With the end of apartheid, who became the first President of South African Republic?
(a) F.W. de Klerk (b) P.W. Botha
(c) Nelson Mandela (d) None of the above
Q.9. Name the autobiography of Nelson Mandela.
(a) The Long Walk to Freedom (b) South Africa Wins Freedom
(c) Walk to Freedom (d) Our Freedom
Q.10. What did the black population want in the new Constitution?
(a) A black President
(b) Substantial social and economic rights
(c) Whites should be turned out of the country
(d) Apartheid for the whites
Q.11. What did the white minority want from the new Constitution?
(a) Protect its privileges and property (b) A separate country for themselves
(c) Reservation in legislature (d) Some special rights
Q.12. During negotiations for making the Constitution, the whites agreed to
(a) The principle of majority rule
(b) One person one vote
(c) Accept some basic rights for the poor and the workers
(d) All the above
Q.13. Which of the following sentences is correct?
(a) All countries that have constitutions are necessarily democratic
(b) All countries that are democratic necessarily have constitutions
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
Q.14. When did Motilal Nehru draft a Constitution for India?
(a) 1927 (b) 1926 (c) 1929 (d) 1928
Q.15. Where was the 1931 session of Indian National Congress held?
(a) Nagpur (b) Karachi (c) Calcutta (d) Delhi
Q.16. Which of these features were accepted by all the Indian leaders much before they sat down to make the Constitution?
(a) Universal adult franchise (b) Right to freedom
(c) Protection of the rights of minorities (d) All the above
Q.17. According to which Act were the elections held to provincial legislatures in India in 1937?
(a) Government of India Act, 1935 (b) Government of India Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1909 (d) None of the above
Q.18. Which of these inspired our leaders while framing the Constitution?
(a) Ideals of the French Revolution (b) Parliamentary democracy in Britain
(c) Bill of Rights in US (d) All the above
Q.19. Which revolution in the world inspired the Indians to set up a socialist economy? [Important]
(a) French Revolution (b) Turkish Revolution
(c) Russian Revolution (d) American War of Independence
Q.20. Name the body which framed the Constitution of India?
(a) General Assembly (b) Constituent Assembly
(c) Constitutional Assembly (d) People's Assembly
Q.21. When did the Assembly adopt the Constitution?
(a) 26 November, 1949 (b) 26 December, 1949 (c) 26 January, 1950 (d) 26 January, 1949
Q.22. Who was the chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (d) Abul Kalam Azad
Q.23. How many amendments were considered before adopting the Constitution?
(a) Around 500 (b) Around 2000 (c) Around 1550 (d) Around 1000
Q.24. Who said the following?
"I shall work for an India in which the poorest shall feel that it is their country ..... in which all communities shall live in perfect harmony."
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (d) Sarojini Naidu
Q.25. Who among these leaders was a bitter critic of Mahatma Gandhi?
(a) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (b) Sarojini Naidu
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Q.26. Whose famous speech are these lines a part of?
"The ambition of the greatest man of our generation has been to wipe every tear from every eye. That may be beyond us, but as long as there are tears and suffering, so longour work will not be over."
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (d) Vallabhbhai Patel
Q.27. "The ambition of the greatest man of our generation has been to wipe every tear from every eye." Who was Nehru referring to in his speech?
(a) Abdul Ghaffar Khan (b) Mahatma Gandhi (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (d) Vallabhbhai Patel
Q.28. The Constitution begins with a short statement of its basic values. What is it called?
(a) Preface (b) Preamble (c) Introduction (d) Article
Q.29. Match these guiding values with their meanings.
(A) Sovereign (i) government will not favour any particular religion
(B) Republic (ii) People will have supreme right to make decisions without outside interference
(C) Fraternity (iii) Head of the state is an elected person
(D) Secular (iv) There should be a feeling of brotherhood among all the people
(a) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
(b) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(c) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii)
(d) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
Q.30. Which of these countries is/are examples of a Republic?
(a) USA (b) India (c) South Africa (d) All the above
Q.31. What kind of 'Justice' does our Preamble provide?
(a) Economic Justice (b) Political Justice (c) Social Justice (d) All the above
Q.32. Which of these positions is correct in relation to the 'Sovereign' status of India?
(a) USA can decide India's foreign policy
(b) USSR can support the CPI (M) in setting up its government here
(c) The Indian government only can decide its internal and external policies
(d) Pakistan can control India's Armed Forces
Q.33. Who was the chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) B.R. Ambedkar (d) Mahatma Gandhi
Q.34. Which of the following days is celebrated to mark the enforcement of the constitution?
(a) Republic Day (b) Independence Day
(c) Gandhi Jayanti (d) Constitution Enforcement Day
Q.35. The Indian constitution has borrowed from
(i) Ideas from French Revolution (ii) The British Constitution
(iii) The Bill of Rights of the US (iv) Israeli Constitution
(a) i, ii, iv (b) i, ii, iii, (c) ii, iii, iv (d) i, ii, iv
Q.36. The Constituent Assembly met for how many days?
(a) 114 (b) 280 (c) 365 (d) 150
Q.37. Who was the chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian constitution ?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) C. Rajgopalachari (d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Q.38. When did the Indian constitution come into force?
(a) 26th Nov, 1949 (b) 15th August, 1947 (c) 26th Jan, 1950 (d) 26th Jan, 1930
Q.39. Who prepared the draft of a constitution for India in 1928?
(a) Motilal Nehru (b) B. R. Ambedkar (c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Q.40. When was the Constitution of India adopted?
(a) 26th Nov, 1949 (b) 26th Jan, 1949 (c) 26th Jan, 1950 (d) 26th Nov, 1950
Q.41. Drafting Committee was chaired by:
(a) Gandhiji (b) Pt. J.L. Nehru (c) Baldev Singh (d) Dr B.R. Ambedkar
Q.42. Mahatma Gandhi wrote :
(a) Young India (b) New India
(c) Discovery of India (d) The Wonder That Was India
Ans. (a)
Q.43. In the constituent assembly, the first captain of the Indian hockey team also had a role.
(a) Baldev Singh (b) Somnath Lahiri (c) Jaipal Singh (d) K.M. Munshi
Q.44. Congress session of 1931 was held at :
(a) Karachi (b) Lucknow (c) Kanpur (d) Madras, now Chennai
Q.45. In which year did Motilal Nehru and others draft a constitution for India?
(a) 1931 (b) 1928 (c) 1929 (d) 1932
Q.46. Who was the President of India's Constituent Assembly?
(a) Motilal Nehru (b) Rajendra Prasad (c) Sarojini Naidu (d) B. R. Ambedkar
1.(a), 2.(b), 3.(d), 4.(c), 5.(d), 6.(d), 7.(b), 8.(c),9.(a), 10.(b), 11.(a), 12.(d), 13.(b), 14.(d), 15.(b), 16.(d), 17.(a), 18.(d), 19.(c), 20.(b), 21.(a), 22.(c), 23.(b), 24.(a), 25.(c), 26.(b), 27.(b), 28.(b), 29.(b), 30.(d), 31.(d), 32.(c), 33.(b), 34.(a), 35.(b), 36.(a), 37.(a), 38.(c), 39.(a), 40.(a), 41.(d), 42.(a),43.(a), 44.(a), 45.(b), 46.(b)
(a) For treason (b) For breaking the laws
(c) For corruption charges (d) For possessing illegal property
Q.2. What is apartheid?
(a) Election in proportion to population
(b) Official policy of discrimination against the Blacks
(c) Equality among all
(d) None of the above
Q.3. In which way did the system of apartheid discriminate among the South Africans?
(a) Restricted social contacts between the races
(b) Segregation of public facilities
(c) Created race-specific job categories
(d) All the above
Q.4. Name the organisation that led the struggle against the policies of segregation.
(a) African National Conference (b) African Neutral Congress
(c) African National Congress (d) All National Party
Q.5. Why did the white regime decide to change its policies?
(a) Increase in protests and struggles
(b) Government realised that repression was becoming difficult
(c) Rise of sympathetic attitude in government for the blacks
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.6. Which of these did not form a part of the changed attitude of South African government? [Important]
(a) Discriminatory laws were repealed
(b) Ban on political parties and media was lifted (c) Nelson Mandela was freed from imprisonment (d) More discriminatory laws were passed
Q.7. When did South Africa become a democratic country?
(a) 26 April, 1995 (b) 26 April, 1994 (c) 24 March, 1994 (d) 27 April, 1996
Q.8. With the end of apartheid, who became the first President of South African Republic?
(a) F.W. de Klerk (b) P.W. Botha
(c) Nelson Mandela (d) None of the above
Q.9. Name the autobiography of Nelson Mandela.
(a) The Long Walk to Freedom (b) South Africa Wins Freedom
(c) Walk to Freedom (d) Our Freedom
Q.10. What did the black population want in the new Constitution?
(a) A black President
(b) Substantial social and economic rights
(c) Whites should be turned out of the country
(d) Apartheid for the whites
Q.11. What did the white minority want from the new Constitution?
(a) Protect its privileges and property (b) A separate country for themselves
(c) Reservation in legislature (d) Some special rights
Q.12. During negotiations for making the Constitution, the whites agreed to
(a) The principle of majority rule
(b) One person one vote
(c) Accept some basic rights for the poor and the workers
(d) All the above
Q.13. Which of the following sentences is correct?
(a) All countries that have constitutions are necessarily democratic
(b) All countries that are democratic necessarily have constitutions
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
Q.14. When did Motilal Nehru draft a Constitution for India?
(a) 1927 (b) 1926 (c) 1929 (d) 1928
Q.15. Where was the 1931 session of Indian National Congress held?
(a) Nagpur (b) Karachi (c) Calcutta (d) Delhi
Q.16. Which of these features were accepted by all the Indian leaders much before they sat down to make the Constitution?
(a) Universal adult franchise (b) Right to freedom
(c) Protection of the rights of minorities (d) All the above
Q.17. According to which Act were the elections held to provincial legislatures in India in 1937?
(a) Government of India Act, 1935 (b) Government of India Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1909 (d) None of the above
Q.18. Which of these inspired our leaders while framing the Constitution?
(a) Ideals of the French Revolution (b) Parliamentary democracy in Britain
(c) Bill of Rights in US (d) All the above
Q.19. Which revolution in the world inspired the Indians to set up a socialist economy? [Important]
(a) French Revolution (b) Turkish Revolution
(c) Russian Revolution (d) American War of Independence
Q.20. Name the body which framed the Constitution of India?
(a) General Assembly (b) Constituent Assembly
(c) Constitutional Assembly (d) People's Assembly
Q.21. When did the Assembly adopt the Constitution?
(a) 26 November, 1949 (b) 26 December, 1949 (c) 26 January, 1950 (d) 26 January, 1949
Q.22. Who was the chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (d) Abul Kalam Azad
Q.23. How many amendments were considered before adopting the Constitution?
(a) Around 500 (b) Around 2000 (c) Around 1550 (d) Around 1000
Q.24. Who said the following?
"I shall work for an India in which the poorest shall feel that it is their country ..... in which all communities shall live in perfect harmony."
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (d) Sarojini Naidu
Q.25. Who among these leaders was a bitter critic of Mahatma Gandhi?
(a) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (b) Sarojini Naidu
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Q.26. Whose famous speech are these lines a part of?
"The ambition of the greatest man of our generation has been to wipe every tear from every eye. That may be beyond us, but as long as there are tears and suffering, so longour work will not be over."
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (d) Vallabhbhai Patel
Q.27. "The ambition of the greatest man of our generation has been to wipe every tear from every eye." Who was Nehru referring to in his speech?
(a) Abdul Ghaffar Khan (b) Mahatma Gandhi (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (d) Vallabhbhai Patel
Q.28. The Constitution begins with a short statement of its basic values. What is it called?
(a) Preface (b) Preamble (c) Introduction (d) Article
Q.29. Match these guiding values with their meanings.
(A) Sovereign (i) government will not favour any particular religion
(B) Republic (ii) People will have supreme right to make decisions without outside interference
(C) Fraternity (iii) Head of the state is an elected person
(D) Secular (iv) There should be a feeling of brotherhood among all the people
(a) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
(b) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(c) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii)
(d) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
Q.30. Which of these countries is/are examples of a Republic?
(a) USA (b) India (c) South Africa (d) All the above
Q.31. What kind of 'Justice' does our Preamble provide?
(a) Economic Justice (b) Political Justice (c) Social Justice (d) All the above
Q.32. Which of these positions is correct in relation to the 'Sovereign' status of India?
(a) USA can decide India's foreign policy
(b) USSR can support the CPI (M) in setting up its government here
(c) The Indian government only can decide its internal and external policies
(d) Pakistan can control India's Armed Forces
Q.33. Who was the chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) B.R. Ambedkar (d) Mahatma Gandhi
Q.34. Which of the following days is celebrated to mark the enforcement of the constitution?
(a) Republic Day (b) Independence Day
(c) Gandhi Jayanti (d) Constitution Enforcement Day
Q.35. The Indian constitution has borrowed from
(i) Ideas from French Revolution (ii) The British Constitution
(iii) The Bill of Rights of the US (iv) Israeli Constitution
(a) i, ii, iv (b) i, ii, iii, (c) ii, iii, iv (d) i, ii, iv
Q.36. The Constituent Assembly met for how many days?
(a) 114 (b) 280 (c) 365 (d) 150
Q.37. Who was the chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian constitution ?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) C. Rajgopalachari (d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Q.38. When did the Indian constitution come into force?
(a) 26th Nov, 1949 (b) 15th August, 1947 (c) 26th Jan, 1950 (d) 26th Jan, 1930
Q.39. Who prepared the draft of a constitution for India in 1928?
(a) Motilal Nehru (b) B. R. Ambedkar (c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Q.40. When was the Constitution of India adopted?
(a) 26th Nov, 1949 (b) 26th Jan, 1949 (c) 26th Jan, 1950 (d) 26th Nov, 1950
Q.41. Drafting Committee was chaired by:
(a) Gandhiji (b) Pt. J.L. Nehru (c) Baldev Singh (d) Dr B.R. Ambedkar
Q.42. Mahatma Gandhi wrote :
(a) Young India (b) New India
(c) Discovery of India (d) The Wonder That Was India
Ans. (a)
Q.43. In the constituent assembly, the first captain of the Indian hockey team also had a role.
(a) Baldev Singh (b) Somnath Lahiri (c) Jaipal Singh (d) K.M. Munshi
Q.44. Congress session of 1931 was held at :
(a) Karachi (b) Lucknow (c) Kanpur (d) Madras, now Chennai
Q.45. In which year did Motilal Nehru and others draft a constitution for India?
(a) 1931 (b) 1928 (c) 1929 (d) 1932
Q.46. Who was the President of India's Constituent Assembly?
(a) Motilal Nehru (b) Rajendra Prasad (c) Sarojini Naidu (d) B. R. Ambedkar
1.(a), 2.(b), 3.(d), 4.(c), 5.(d), 6.(d), 7.(b), 8.(c),9.(a), 10.(b), 11.(a), 12.(d), 13.(b), 14.(d), 15.(b), 16.(d), 17.(a), 18.(d), 19.(c), 20.(b), 21.(a), 22.(c), 23.(b), 24.(a), 25.(c), 26.(b), 27.(b), 28.(b), 29.(b), 30.(d), 31.(d), 32.(c), 33.(b), 34.(a), 35.(b), 36.(a), 37.(a), 38.(c), 39.(a), 40.(a), 41.(d), 42.(a),43.(a), 44.(a), 45.(b), 46.(b)
Monday, 19 October 2015
Electoral Politics
Q.1. Who led the 'Nyaya Yudh'?
(a) Chaudhary Charan Singh (b) Chaudhary Devi Lal
(c) Ajit Singh (d) None of the above
Q.2. What was the promise Devi Lal made to the farmers and small businessmen?
(a) He would waive the loans of farmers and small businessmen
(b) He would lessen the rate of interest on their loans
(c) He would modernise agriculture
(d) He would provide free seeds and pesticides to them
Q.3. Which of the following statements about the reasons for conducting elections are false?
(a) Elections enable people to judge the performance of the government
(b) People elect the representatives of their choice in an election
(c) Elections enable people to evaluate the performance of the judiciary
(d) Elections enable people to indicate which policies they prefer
Q.4. Which of these is not a feature of Indian democracy? (a) India has the largest number of voters in the world (b) India's Election Commission is very powerful
(c) In India, everyone above the age of 18 has a right to vote
(d) In India, the losing parties refuse to accept the electoral verdict
Q.5. Which of these choices are made by voters in elections to a representative democracy?
(a) Voters can choose who will make laws for them
(b) They can choose who will form the government
(c) They can choose the party whose policies will guide the government
(d) All the above
Q.6. Which of these is not a condition of a democratic election?
(a) Everyone is allowed to vote
(b) There are political parties to contest elections
(c) The candidate not preferred by people gets elected
(d) Elections are held at regular intervals
Q.7. What is meant by the term 'constituency'?
(a) Place where the copy of constitution is kept
(b) A particular area from where voters elect a representative to the Lok Sabha / Vidhan Sabha
(c) A body of voters
(d) None of the above
Q.8. Which of the options below are the demerits of the electoral competition?
(a) Creates a sense of factionalism (b) Parties use dirty tricks to win elections
(c) Parties respect each other (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.9. In India, elections for which of these bodies are held after every five years? (a) Rajya Sabha (b) Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha (c) Vidhan Parishad (d) Only Lok Sabha
Q.10. Elections held after the term of 5 years of Lok Sabha are called
(a) Mid-term elections (b) General elections (c) By-elections (d) Special elections
Ans. (b)
Q.11. What is an election held for only one constituency to fill the vacancy caused due to the death or resignation of a member called?
(a) By-election (b) Mid-term election (c) General election (d) None of the above
Q.12. Into how many constituencies is the country divided for Lok Sabha elections?
(a) 544 (b) 543 (c) 560 (d) 535
Q.13. Constituencies called 'wards' are made for the election to
(a) Parliament (b) State Legislative Assembly
(c) State Legislative Council (d) Panchayats and municipal bodies
Q.14. Which of these options is not correct?
(a) In an open electoral competition, certain weaker sections may not get elected
(b) Resources, education and contacts may be lacking in their case
(c) Influential people may prevent them from winning elections
(d) Influential people help certain weaker sections in winning elections.
Q.15. How many seats are reserved in Lok Sabha for the Scheduled Tribes?
(a) 40 (b) 41 (c) 51 (d) 71
Q.16. How many seats are reserved for women in rural and urban local bodies?
(a) half of the seats (b) one-third of the seats
(c) two-third of the seats (d) none of the above
Q.17. Which of these is not a part of the district and local level bodies?
(a) Panchayats (b) Municipalities (c) Corporations (d) Lok Sabha
Q.18. Which of the options given below are applicable to the principle of Universal Adult
Franchise?
(a) Only rich and educated can vote (b) Only men can vote
(c) All citizens aged 18 and above can vote (d) Only employed people can vote
Q.19. For voting, the voter has to show which of these as identity proof?
(a) Ration card (b) Driving license
(c) Election Photo Identity Card (EPIC) (d) Any of these
Q.20. What is the minimum age required to contest an election to Lok Sabha?
(a) 20 years (b) 18 years (c) 25 years (d) 30 years
Q.21. What are the details the candidates have to give in the legal declaration before contesting the elections?
(a) Serious criminal cases pending against them
(b) Details of assets and liabilities of the candidate and his or her family
(c) Educational qualification of the candidate (d) All the above
Q.22. What is a set of norms and guidelines, which is to be followed by political parties and contesting candidates during the election time, called?
(a) Discipline Roll (b) Code of Conduct (c) Conduct rules (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.23. Which of these is permitted under the Code of Conduct for election campaign?
(a) Use of place of worship for election propaganda
(b) Use of government vehicle for elections (c) Use of media
(d) Once elections are announced, making any promises of providing public facilities
Q.24. Which candidate is declared elected?
(a) One who secures the highest number of votes from a constituency
(b) One who secures two-third majority (c) One who secures
(d) None of the above
Q.25. Name the body which conducts the elections in India.
(a) Supreme Court (b) Parliament (c) Cabinet (d) Election Commission
Q.26. How is the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) chosen?
(a) Appointed by the President (b) Elected by the people
(c) Elected by the MPs (d) Elected by MPs and MLAs
Q.27. When on election duty, under whose control do the government officers work?
(a) Central Government (b) Election Commission
(c) District Magistrate (d) District Court
Q.28. Which of these powers is/are exercised by the Election Commission to ensure free and fair elections?
(a) Election Commission tightens norms for poll expenses
(b) Election Commission orders repoll in 398 booths (c) Election Commission appoints new Haryana DGP (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.29. In India, who votes in a larger proportion in the elections?
(a) Poor and illiterate (b) Rich and privileged
(c) Educated people (d) Women
Q.30. What does the term 'incumbent' mean?
(a) The current holder of a political office (b) The candidate contesting the election
(c) The outgoing candidate of the dissolved House (d) None of the above
Q.31. An electoral malpractice in which a person assumes the identity of another for unlawful purposes is :
(a) Incumbent (b) Rigging (c) Impersonation (d) Turnact
Q.32. The Election Commission is :
(a) An elected body (b) An appointed body (c) An independent body (d) Both (b) and (c)
Q.33. Which among the following is not correct?
(a) The Election Commission conducts all elections for the Parliament and Assemblies
(b) The Election Commission directs and controls the preparation of electoral roll
(c) The Election Commission cannot fix the election dates
(d) The Election Commission does scrutiny of nomination papers
Q.34. Which of the following is not allowed while carrying out election campaign?
(a) Giving money to voters to cast vote for candidates
(b) Using TV channels
(c) Door to door canvassing
(d) Contacting voters on phone
Q.35. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) All citizens above the age of 21 can vote in an election
(b) Every citizen has the right to vote regardless of caste religion or gender
(c) Some criminals and persons with unsound mind can be denied the right to vote in rare situations
(d) It is the responsibility of the government to get the names of all eligible voters put in the voters list.
Q.36. ''Save Democracy'' slogan was given by which of the following political party in 1977
Lok Sabha elections?
(a) Congress Party (b) Janata Party (b) Telugu Desam Party (d) Left Front
Q.37. What is the age of a person who can contest election for the Lok Sabha in India?
(a) 25 years (b) 30 years (c) 35 years (d) 40 years
Q.38. In our country, elections are conducted by an independent and powerful body which is known as: (a) Election Commission (b) Parliament (c) Judiciary (d) Lok Sabha
Q.39. Voter's List is also known as:
(a) Election Number (b) Voter Identity Card (c) Electoral Roll (d) None of these
Q.40. What is the tenure of the Lok Sabha?
(a) 9 years (b) 4 years (c) 5 years (d) 6 years
Q.41. Which one of the following provisions fails to ensure fair and equal chance to compete to candidates and political parties?
(a) No party or candidate can bribe or threaten voters
(b) No party or candidate is bound by the model code of conduct
(c) No party of candidates can use government resources for election campaign
(d) Nobody can appeal to voters in the name of caste or religion
Ans. (b)
Q.42. Which of the following statements is against the democratic process of elections?
(a) Parties and candidates should be free to contest elections
(b) Elections must be held regularly immediately after the term is over
(c) The right to vote should be given to the selected people only
(d) Elections should be conducted in a free and fair manner
Q.43. Which state has the largest vidhan sabha in the country?
(a) Maharashtra (b) U.P. (Uttar Pradesh) (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) West Bengal
Q.44. Reserved Constituencies ensures:
(a) Right to equality
(b) Proper representation to all religious groups
(c) Proper representation to the weaker sections of society
(d) None of these
Q.45. Which of the following has the largest Lok Sabha constituency in India?
(a) Maharashtra (b) U.P. (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Bihar
Q.46. Who has given the slogan 'Garibi Hatao'?
(a) Indira Gandhi (b) Rajiv Gandhi (c) Sonia Gandhi (d) Pt. Nehru
Q.47. The number of Lok Sabha constituencies at present is :
(a) 541 (b) 546 (c) 543 (d) 540
Q.48. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) The Chief Justice of India (b) The Prime Minister of India
(c) The President of India (d) The people of India
Q.49. Who is responsible for free and fair elections in India?
(a) Prime Minister (b) President
(c) Election Commissioner (d) Council of Ministers
Q.50. The number of seats reserved for Scheduled Castes in the Lok Sabha is:
(a) 59 (b) 79 (c) 89 (d) 99
Q.51. Election Commission of India is appointed by:
(a) The Parliament (b) The Prime Minister
(c) The President of India (d) The Supreme Court
Q.52. Election Commissioner in India is appointed for a period of:
(a) 4 years (b) 7 years (c) 6 years (d) 5 years
Q.53. What is the Electoral Roll?
(a) The list of those who are eligible to vote (b) The list of those who are contesting election
(c) The list of those who are not eligible to vote (d) None of the above
Q.54. Which of the following does not include election procedure?
(a) Voting (b) Nomination of candidates (c) Booth capturing (d) Canvassing
Q.55. When government officers work in election duty, they work under the control of:
(a) The Government (b) Election Commission (c) The Parliament (d) The Judiciary
Ans. (b)
Q.56. Which is the new reform introduced in the electroal process by the Election Commission?
(a) Indelible ink (b) Electronic voting machine
(c) Polling booths (d) Voters' list
Q.57. What is the minimum age of voters in India?
(a) 18 years (b) 25 years (c) 21 years (d) 20 years
Ans. (a)
Q.58. A ballot paper is a sheet of paper which contains the names of the:
(a) voters (b) contesting candidates
(c) polling officials (d) party workers
Q.59. A set of norms and guidelines to be followed by political parties and candidates during
elections is called:
(a) Constituency (b) Rigging (c) Code of conduct (d) Turnout
Q.60. The boundaries of a constituency is decided on the basis of:
(a) population (b) culture (c) language (d) number of villages
Q.61. Which one of the following help to check the quality of the election process?
(a) election campaign (b) reservation of seats for women
(c) Independent and powerful Election Commission (d) Nomination of candidates
Q.62. Which of the following statements about the reasons for conducting elections is false?
(a) Elections enable people to judge the performance of the government
(b) People select the representatatives of their choice in an election
(c) Elections enable people to evaluate the performance of the judiciary
(d) People can indicate which policies they prefer
Q.63. The number of 'Reserved Seats' for Scheduled Castes and Tribes in the Lok Sabha is according to :
(a) their population share (b) the decision of the Election Commission
(c) the decision of all political parties (d) None of these
Q.64. Which of these is not a feature of Universal Adult Franchise in India?
(a) Every citizen should have one vote (b) Each vote should have equal value
(c) Every adult citizen has the right to vote
(d) Every voter should be educated upto primary level
1.(b), 2.(a), 3.(c), 4.(d),5.(d), 6.(c), 7.(b), 8.(d), 9.(b), 10.(b), 11.(a), 12.(b), 13.(d), 14.(d), 15.(b), 16., (b), 17.(d), 18.(c), 19.(d), 20.(c), 21.(d),, 22.(b), 23.(c), 24.(a), 25.(d), 26.(a), 27.(b), 28.(d), 29.(a), 30.(a), 31.(c), 32.(d), 33.(c), 34.(a), 35.(a), 35.(a), 36.(b), 37.(a), 38.(a), 39.(c), 40.(c), 41.(b), 42.(c), 43.(b), 44.(c), 45.(b), 46.(a), 47.(c), 48.(c), 49.(c), 50.(b), 51.(c), 52.(c), 53.(a), 54.(c), 55.(b), 56.(b), 57.(a), 58.(b), 59.(c), 60.(a), 61.(c), 62.(c), 63.(a), 64.(d)
(a) Chaudhary Charan Singh (b) Chaudhary Devi Lal
(c) Ajit Singh (d) None of the above
Q.2. What was the promise Devi Lal made to the farmers and small businessmen?
(a) He would waive the loans of farmers and small businessmen
(b) He would lessen the rate of interest on their loans
(c) He would modernise agriculture
(d) He would provide free seeds and pesticides to them
Q.3. Which of the following statements about the reasons for conducting elections are false?
(a) Elections enable people to judge the performance of the government
(b) People elect the representatives of their choice in an election
(c) Elections enable people to evaluate the performance of the judiciary
(d) Elections enable people to indicate which policies they prefer
Q.4. Which of these is not a feature of Indian democracy? (a) India has the largest number of voters in the world (b) India's Election Commission is very powerful
(c) In India, everyone above the age of 18 has a right to vote
(d) In India, the losing parties refuse to accept the electoral verdict
Q.5. Which of these choices are made by voters in elections to a representative democracy?
(a) Voters can choose who will make laws for them
(b) They can choose who will form the government
(c) They can choose the party whose policies will guide the government
(d) All the above
Q.6. Which of these is not a condition of a democratic election?
(a) Everyone is allowed to vote
(b) There are political parties to contest elections
(c) The candidate not preferred by people gets elected
(d) Elections are held at regular intervals
Q.7. What is meant by the term 'constituency'?
(a) Place where the copy of constitution is kept
(b) A particular area from where voters elect a representative to the Lok Sabha / Vidhan Sabha
(c) A body of voters
(d) None of the above
Q.8. Which of the options below are the demerits of the electoral competition?
(a) Creates a sense of factionalism (b) Parties use dirty tricks to win elections
(c) Parties respect each other (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.9. In India, elections for which of these bodies are held after every five years? (a) Rajya Sabha (b) Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha (c) Vidhan Parishad (d) Only Lok Sabha
Q.10. Elections held after the term of 5 years of Lok Sabha are called
(a) Mid-term elections (b) General elections (c) By-elections (d) Special elections
Ans. (b)
Q.11. What is an election held for only one constituency to fill the vacancy caused due to the death or resignation of a member called?
(a) By-election (b) Mid-term election (c) General election (d) None of the above
Q.12. Into how many constituencies is the country divided for Lok Sabha elections?
(a) 544 (b) 543 (c) 560 (d) 535
Q.13. Constituencies called 'wards' are made for the election to
(a) Parliament (b) State Legislative Assembly
(c) State Legislative Council (d) Panchayats and municipal bodies
Q.14. Which of these options is not correct?
(a) In an open electoral competition, certain weaker sections may not get elected
(b) Resources, education and contacts may be lacking in their case
(c) Influential people may prevent them from winning elections
(d) Influential people help certain weaker sections in winning elections.
Q.15. How many seats are reserved in Lok Sabha for the Scheduled Tribes?
(a) 40 (b) 41 (c) 51 (d) 71
Q.16. How many seats are reserved for women in rural and urban local bodies?
(a) half of the seats (b) one-third of the seats
(c) two-third of the seats (d) none of the above
Q.17. Which of these is not a part of the district and local level bodies?
(a) Panchayats (b) Municipalities (c) Corporations (d) Lok Sabha
Q.18. Which of the options given below are applicable to the principle of Universal Adult
Franchise?
(a) Only rich and educated can vote (b) Only men can vote
(c) All citizens aged 18 and above can vote (d) Only employed people can vote
Q.19. For voting, the voter has to show which of these as identity proof?
(a) Ration card (b) Driving license
(c) Election Photo Identity Card (EPIC) (d) Any of these
Q.20. What is the minimum age required to contest an election to Lok Sabha?
(a) 20 years (b) 18 years (c) 25 years (d) 30 years
Q.21. What are the details the candidates have to give in the legal declaration before contesting the elections?
(a) Serious criminal cases pending against them
(b) Details of assets and liabilities of the candidate and his or her family
(c) Educational qualification of the candidate (d) All the above
Q.22. What is a set of norms and guidelines, which is to be followed by political parties and contesting candidates during the election time, called?
(a) Discipline Roll (b) Code of Conduct (c) Conduct rules (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.23. Which of these is permitted under the Code of Conduct for election campaign?
(a) Use of place of worship for election propaganda
(b) Use of government vehicle for elections (c) Use of media
(d) Once elections are announced, making any promises of providing public facilities
Q.24. Which candidate is declared elected?
(a) One who secures the highest number of votes from a constituency
(b) One who secures two-third majority (c) One who secures
(d) None of the above
Q.25. Name the body which conducts the elections in India.
(a) Supreme Court (b) Parliament (c) Cabinet (d) Election Commission
Q.26. How is the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) chosen?
(a) Appointed by the President (b) Elected by the people
(c) Elected by the MPs (d) Elected by MPs and MLAs
Q.27. When on election duty, under whose control do the government officers work?
(a) Central Government (b) Election Commission
(c) District Magistrate (d) District Court
Q.28. Which of these powers is/are exercised by the Election Commission to ensure free and fair elections?
(a) Election Commission tightens norms for poll expenses
(b) Election Commission orders repoll in 398 booths (c) Election Commission appoints new Haryana DGP (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.29. In India, who votes in a larger proportion in the elections?
(a) Poor and illiterate (b) Rich and privileged
(c) Educated people (d) Women
Q.30. What does the term 'incumbent' mean?
(a) The current holder of a political office (b) The candidate contesting the election
(c) The outgoing candidate of the dissolved House (d) None of the above
Q.31. An electoral malpractice in which a person assumes the identity of another for unlawful purposes is :
(a) Incumbent (b) Rigging (c) Impersonation (d) Turnact
Q.32. The Election Commission is :
(a) An elected body (b) An appointed body (c) An independent body (d) Both (b) and (c)
Q.33. Which among the following is not correct?
(a) The Election Commission conducts all elections for the Parliament and Assemblies
(b) The Election Commission directs and controls the preparation of electoral roll
(c) The Election Commission cannot fix the election dates
(d) The Election Commission does scrutiny of nomination papers
Q.34. Which of the following is not allowed while carrying out election campaign?
(a) Giving money to voters to cast vote for candidates
(b) Using TV channels
(c) Door to door canvassing
(d) Contacting voters on phone
Q.35. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) All citizens above the age of 21 can vote in an election
(b) Every citizen has the right to vote regardless of caste religion or gender
(c) Some criminals and persons with unsound mind can be denied the right to vote in rare situations
(d) It is the responsibility of the government to get the names of all eligible voters put in the voters list.
Q.36. ''Save Democracy'' slogan was given by which of the following political party in 1977
Lok Sabha elections?
(a) Congress Party (b) Janata Party (b) Telugu Desam Party (d) Left Front
Q.37. What is the age of a person who can contest election for the Lok Sabha in India?
(a) 25 years (b) 30 years (c) 35 years (d) 40 years
Q.38. In our country, elections are conducted by an independent and powerful body which is known as: (a) Election Commission (b) Parliament (c) Judiciary (d) Lok Sabha
Q.39. Voter's List is also known as:
(a) Election Number (b) Voter Identity Card (c) Electoral Roll (d) None of these
Q.40. What is the tenure of the Lok Sabha?
(a) 9 years (b) 4 years (c) 5 years (d) 6 years
Q.41. Which one of the following provisions fails to ensure fair and equal chance to compete to candidates and political parties?
(a) No party or candidate can bribe or threaten voters
(b) No party or candidate is bound by the model code of conduct
(c) No party of candidates can use government resources for election campaign
(d) Nobody can appeal to voters in the name of caste or religion
Ans. (b)
Q.42. Which of the following statements is against the democratic process of elections?
(a) Parties and candidates should be free to contest elections
(b) Elections must be held regularly immediately after the term is over
(c) The right to vote should be given to the selected people only
(d) Elections should be conducted in a free and fair manner
Q.43. Which state has the largest vidhan sabha in the country?
(a) Maharashtra (b) U.P. (Uttar Pradesh) (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) West Bengal
Q.44. Reserved Constituencies ensures:
(a) Right to equality
(b) Proper representation to all religious groups
(c) Proper representation to the weaker sections of society
(d) None of these
Q.45. Which of the following has the largest Lok Sabha constituency in India?
(a) Maharashtra (b) U.P. (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Bihar
Q.46. Who has given the slogan 'Garibi Hatao'?
(a) Indira Gandhi (b) Rajiv Gandhi (c) Sonia Gandhi (d) Pt. Nehru
Q.47. The number of Lok Sabha constituencies at present is :
(a) 541 (b) 546 (c) 543 (d) 540
Q.48. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) The Chief Justice of India (b) The Prime Minister of India
(c) The President of India (d) The people of India
Q.49. Who is responsible for free and fair elections in India?
(a) Prime Minister (b) President
(c) Election Commissioner (d) Council of Ministers
Q.50. The number of seats reserved for Scheduled Castes in the Lok Sabha is:
(a) 59 (b) 79 (c) 89 (d) 99
Q.51. Election Commission of India is appointed by:
(a) The Parliament (b) The Prime Minister
(c) The President of India (d) The Supreme Court
Q.52. Election Commissioner in India is appointed for a period of:
(a) 4 years (b) 7 years (c) 6 years (d) 5 years
Q.53. What is the Electoral Roll?
(a) The list of those who are eligible to vote (b) The list of those who are contesting election
(c) The list of those who are not eligible to vote (d) None of the above
Q.54. Which of the following does not include election procedure?
(a) Voting (b) Nomination of candidates (c) Booth capturing (d) Canvassing
Q.55. When government officers work in election duty, they work under the control of:
(a) The Government (b) Election Commission (c) The Parliament (d) The Judiciary
Ans. (b)
Q.56. Which is the new reform introduced in the electroal process by the Election Commission?
(a) Indelible ink (b) Electronic voting machine
(c) Polling booths (d) Voters' list
Q.57. What is the minimum age of voters in India?
(a) 18 years (b) 25 years (c) 21 years (d) 20 years
Ans. (a)
Q.58. A ballot paper is a sheet of paper which contains the names of the:
(a) voters (b) contesting candidates
(c) polling officials (d) party workers
Q.59. A set of norms and guidelines to be followed by political parties and candidates during
elections is called:
(a) Constituency (b) Rigging (c) Code of conduct (d) Turnout
Q.60. The boundaries of a constituency is decided on the basis of:
(a) population (b) culture (c) language (d) number of villages
Q.61. Which one of the following help to check the quality of the election process?
(a) election campaign (b) reservation of seats for women
(c) Independent and powerful Election Commission (d) Nomination of candidates
Q.62. Which of the following statements about the reasons for conducting elections is false?
(a) Elections enable people to judge the performance of the government
(b) People select the representatatives of their choice in an election
(c) Elections enable people to evaluate the performance of the judiciary
(d) People can indicate which policies they prefer
Q.63. The number of 'Reserved Seats' for Scheduled Castes and Tribes in the Lok Sabha is according to :
(a) their population share (b) the decision of the Election Commission
(c) the decision of all political parties (d) None of these
Q.64. Which of these is not a feature of Universal Adult Franchise in India?
(a) Every citizen should have one vote (b) Each vote should have equal value
(c) Every adult citizen has the right to vote
(d) Every voter should be educated upto primary level
1.(b), 2.(a), 3.(c), 4.(d),5.(d), 6.(c), 7.(b), 8.(d), 9.(b), 10.(b), 11.(a), 12.(b), 13.(d), 14.(d), 15.(b), 16., (b), 17.(d), 18.(c), 19.(d), 20.(c), 21.(d),, 22.(b), 23.(c), 24.(a), 25.(d), 26.(a), 27.(b), 28.(d), 29.(a), 30.(a), 31.(c), 32.(d), 33.(c), 34.(a), 35.(a), 35.(a), 36.(b), 37.(a), 38.(a), 39.(c), 40.(c), 41.(b), 42.(c), 43.(b), 44.(c), 45.(b), 46.(a), 47.(c), 48.(c), 49.(c), 50.(b), 51.(c), 52.(c), 53.(a), 54.(c), 55.(b), 56.(b), 57.(a), 58.(b), 59.(c), 60.(a), 61.(c), 62.(c), 63.(a), 64.(d)
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