People as Resource

 Q.1. Why is literacy rate low among the females?

(a) lack of equal education opportunities (b) lack of transport facilities

(c) lack of infrastructure (d) lack of income

Ans. (a)

Q.2. In which state was the literacy rate highest as per 2001 study?

(a) Kerala (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Bihar (d) Orissa

Ans. (a)

Q.3. Which of the following is a significant step towards providing elementary education to all the children in the age group of 6-14 years?

(a) Sarva Siksha Abhiyan (b) Adult Education Programme

(c) Mid-day meal (d) None of the above

Ans. (a)

Q.4. Market activity refers to production for

(a) exchange (b) earning income (c) earning profit (d) all the above

Ans. (d)

Q.5. Increase in longevity of life is an indicator of

(a) good quality of life (b) improvement in health sector

(c) better HDI (Human Development Index) (d) all the above

Ans. (a)

Q.6. Self-consumption is

(a) non-production activity (b) non-market activity

(c) non-economic activity (d) none of the above

Ans. (b)

Q.7. Secondary sector includes

(a) trade (b) marketing (c) manufacturing (d) education

Ans. (c)

Q.8. One who can read and write in any language with understanding is termed as

(a) student (b) adult (c) child (d) literate

Ans. (d)

Q.9. What is India's position in scientific and technical manpower in the world?

(a) first (b) second (c) third (d) fourth

Ans. (c)

Q.10. Investment in human capital is expenditure on

(a) education (b) training (c) medical care (d) all the above

Ans. (d)

Q.11. The scheme for the establishment of residential schools to impart education to talented children from

rural areas is

(a) Kendriya Vidyalayas (b) Navodaya Vidyalayas

(c) Sarvodaya Vidyalayas (d) None of the aboves

Ans. (b)

Q.12. Services of housewives are included in

(a) national income (b) domestic income (c) household income (d) none of the above

Ans. (d)

Q.13. Infant mortality rate refers to the death of a child under the age of

(a) 1 year (b) 2 years (c) 3 years (d) 4 years

Ans. (a)

Q.14. Choose the non-market activities

(i) Vilas sells fish in the village market (ii) Vilas cooks food for his family

(iii) Sakal works in a private firm

(iv) Sakal looks after his younger brother and sister

(a) (i) & (ii) (b) (iii) & (iv) (c) (i) & (iii) (d) (ii) & (iv)

Ans. (d)

Q.15. Choose the primary sector activities

(i) Forestry (ii) Poultry farming

(iii) Animal husbandry (iv) Manufacturing

(a) (i) (b) (i), (ii), (iii) (c) (ii), (iii), (iv) (d) All the above

Ans. (b)

Q.16. Tertiary sector provides

(a) services (b) goods

(c) both goods and services (d) none of the above

Ans. (a)

Q.17. Quality of population depends upon

(a) literacy rate (b) health (c) skill (d) all the above

Ans. (d)

Q.18. People as a resource refers to their

(a) educational skills (b) productive skills (c) health skills (d) none of the above

Ans. (b)

Q.19. Seasonal unemployement is found in

(a) urban areas (b) rural areas

(c) in remote areas (d) both in rural and urban areas

Ans. (b)

Q.20. Bribe taking is an

(a) economic activity (b) marketing activity

(c) non-economic activity (d) none of the above

Ans. (c)

Q.21. The persons who are not working by choice are covered under

(a) seasonal unemployment (b) disguised unemployment

(c) educated unemployment (d) none of the above

Ans. (d)

Q.22. Disguised unemployment occurs when the number of persons working on a farm is

(a) only what is required (b) more than required

(c) less than required (d) None of the above

Ans. (b)

Q.23. If a person in rural areas cannot find jobs during some months of the year, which type

of employment is this called? [CBSE 2010]

(a) Structural unemployment

(c) Seasonal unemployment (b) Cyclical

(d) None of unemployment

these

Ans. (c)

Q.24. What is the literacy rate of India as per 2001 census?

(a) 60% (b) 62% (c) 65% (d) 70%

Ans. (c)

Q.25. According to 2001 census, sex-ratio of India is :

(a) 921 females per 1000 (b) 930 females per 1000 (c) 928 females per 1000

(d) 933 females per 1000

Ans. (b)

Q.26. Which of the following sectors is related to agriculture, forestry and dairy?

[CBSE 2010]

(a) Primary Sector (b) Tertiary Sector (c) Secondary Sector (d) None of the above

Ans. (a)

Q.27. PHC stands for

(a) Public Health Club (b) Private Health Club

(c) Primary Health Centre (d) None of these

Ans. (c)

Q.28. In which of the following fields is disguised unemployment found?

(a) Industries (b) Agriculture (c) Mining (d) Fisherise

Ans. (b)

Q.29. What is the major aim of Sarva Siksha Abhiyan?

(a) To provide elementary education to women (b) To provide elementary education to the rural poor

(c) To provide elementary education to all children in the age group 6-14 years

(d) To provide elementary education to the urban poor

Ans. (c)

Q.30. Which one of the following is related to the tertiary sector?

(a) Agriculture (b) Forestry (c) Mining (d) Communication

Ans. (d)

Q.31. Which one among the following is the most labour absorbing sector?

(a) Agriculture (b) Fisheries (c) Poultry farming (d) Mining

Ans. (a)

Q.32. Which is an economic activity in the following?

(a) Work of Nurse at her home (b) Work of Doctor at their home

(c) Work of Teacher in the school (d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

Q.33. Which one of the following is considered important to create a 'virtuous cycle' by the parents?

(a) To sand their children to the school (b) To provide goods food to their children

(c) To join their children in corporate schools (d) To take care of the health and education of their children

Ans. (d)

Q.34. Infant mortality rate in 2000 was :

(a) 85 (b) 70 (c) 75 (d) 35

Ans. (c)

Q.35. What is the life expectancy in India according to the census of 2000?

(a) 72 years (b) 53 years (c) 64 years (d) 80 years

Ans. (c)

Q.36. Tenth Plan endeavoured to increase enrolment in higher education from 6% to :

(a) 7% (b) 9% (c) 10% (d) 12%

Ans. (b)

Q.37. Decrease in IMR (Infant Mortality Rate) of a country signifies :

(a) Increase in life expectancy (b) Increase in GNP

(c) Economic development of a country (d) Increase in number of colleges in a country

Ans. (a)

Q.38. Strike the odd one out (with reference to population) :

(a) Education (b) Medical Care (c) Training (d) Computers

Ans. (d)

Q.39. The number of females per thousand males refers to :

(a) Sex Ratio (b) Literacy Rate (c) Infant Mortality Rate (d) Birth Rate

Ans. (a)

Q.40. At Rampur village, in an agricultural field 6 men are required for weeding, but 10 people are doing the

work. This kind of employment is known as :

(a) Disguised unemployment (b) Seasonal unemployment

(c) Rural unemployment (d) All of these

Ans. (a)

Q.41. Which one of the following is not a cause of urban unemployment?

(a) Mass migration from rural to urban areas (b) Slow rate of economic development

(c) Maladjustment between the demand and supply of labour (d) Caste system

Ans. (d)

Q.42. Census refers to :

(a) Total no. of babies born (b) Official counting of population done after every then years

(c) Total no. of infants that are vaccinated (d) Recording of Births and Deaths every year

Ans. (b)

Q.43. Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to tertiary sector?

(a) In these activities goods are either grown on the earth or dug out from the earth

(b) These activities transform primary goods into some commodities with the help of manual labour or

machines

(c) These activities generate services rather than goods (d) This sector is primarily known as service sector

Ans. (d)

Q.44. When there is investment made in the form of education, training and medical care, the

population becomes :

(a) Working capital (b) Human capital (c) Fixed capital (d) Capital growth

Ans. (b)

Q.45. Education contributes towards the growth of a society. It also enhances the :

(a) National income (b) Cultural richness

(c) Efficiency of governance (d) All of the above

Ans. (d)

Q.46. Educated unemployment is partly because of :

(a) slower rate of industrial expansion (b) improper educational system

(c) both a and b (d) none of these

Ans. (c)

Q.47. The workforce population of India includes people from the age group of :

(a) 10-59 years (b) 15-59 years (c) 20-59 years (d) 25-59 years

Ans. (b)

Q.48. Activities like trade, transport, health, banking, insurance etc. are included in the sector.

(a) Secondary (b) Primary (c) Manufacturing (d) Tertiary

Ans. (d)

Q.49. In rural India, two types of unemployment exist :

(a) Disguised and optional (b) Seasonal and undisguised

(c) Seasonal and optional (d) Seasonal and disguised

Ans. (d)

Q.50. Number of babies born for every 1000 people during a year is called

(a) Death rate (b) Birth rate (c) Growth rate (d) Population increase

Ans. (b)

Q.51. In the secondary sector, which is the most labour absorbing unit?

(a) Small scale manufacturing (b) Medium scale manufacturing

(c) Large scale manufacturing (d) None of these

Ans. (a)

Q.52. Which one of the following cannot be regarded as building of the human capital in a country?

(a) Spending resources on education (b) Providing training of industrial workers

(c) Increasing salary of workers (d) Providing health to all

Ans. (c)

Q.53. Government has set schools in each district called

(a) Army Schools (b) Navodaya Vidyalayas (c) Sainik Schools (d) Missionary Schools

Ans. (b)

Q.54. Number of deaths for every 1000 people in a year is called

(a) Death Rate (b) Birth Rate

(c) Decrease Rate (d) Population Decrease

Ans. (a)

The Story of Village Palampur

Q.1. Which of the following is grown in the rainy season?

(a) Jowar and bajra (b) Wheat (c) Soyabean (d) Rice

Ans. (a)

Q.2. Which of the following is a Rabi crop?

(a) Wheat (b) Rice (c) Cotton (d) Jowar and bajra

Ans. (a)

Q.3. Which of the following is fixed capital?

(a) Tools and machines (b) Fertilisers and pesticides

(c) Soil (d) Seeds

Ans. (a)

Q.4. Which of the following is a standard unit of measurement of land?

(a) Bigha (b) Hectare (c) Acre (d) Guintha

Ans. (b)

Q.5. The minimum wages for a farm labourer set by the government is

(a) Rs. 50 (b) Rs. 60 (c) Rs. 70 (d) Rs. 80

Ans. (b)

Q.6. Money in hand is an example of

(a) Human capital (b) Fixed capital (c) Working capital (d) Physical capital

Ans. (c)

Q.7. HYV seeds stands for

(a) Heavy yielding variety seeds (b) High yielding variety seeds

(c) Half yielding variety seeds (d) None of the above

Ans. (b)

Q.8. What is the main production activity in Palampur village?

(a) Farming (b) Animal husbandry (c) Transport (d) Small-scale manufacturing

Ans. (a)

Q.9. Multiple cropping means growing

(a) only two crops (b) only three crops (c) upto four crops (d) more than one crop

Ans. (d)

Q.10. Land under cultivation (in million hectares) in India in the year 2000 was

(a) 120 (b) 130 (c) 140 (d) 150

Ans. (c)

Q.11. Which area in India has a low level of irrigation?

(a) Deccan plateau (b) Coastal regions (c) Riverine plains (d) Both (a) and (b)

Ans. (a)

Q.12. Modern farming methods were tried in India for the first time in

(a) Punjab (b) Western U.P. (c) Haryana (d) All the above

Ans. (d)

Q.13. Which of the following is a modern farming method?

(a) Multiple cropping (b) Use of HYV seeds

(c) Use of chemical fertilisers (d) Both (b) and (c)

Ans. (d)

Q.14. Production of pulses (in million tonnes) in India during 2000-01 was

(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 14 (d) 12

Ans. (b)

Q.15. Which one is a natural resource?

(a) Labour (b) Raw materials (c) Mineral (d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

Q.16. High yielding variety seeds (HYV) were introduced to Indian farmers as a result of

(a) White Revolution (b) Green Revolution

(c) IT Revolution (d) None of the above

Ans. (b)

Q.17. Which Kharif crop is used for cattle feed?

(a) Sugarcane (b) Potato (c) Jowar and bajra (d) Wheat

Ans. (c)

Q.18. The activities such as small manufacturing, transport, shopkeeping are referred to as

(a) Non-economic activities (b) Non-farming activities

(c) Non-traditional activities (d) Non-market activities

Ans. (b)

Q.19. High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds are developed in

(a) Research institutes (b) Factories

(c) Krishak Bharati Cooperatives (d) None of the above

Ans. (a)

Q.20. The concept of White Revolution is associated with

(a) food crops (b) milk (c) cotton (d) pesticides

Ans. (b)

Q.21. Who is a person who puts together land, labour and capital?

(a) Moneylender (b) Entrepreneur (c) Zamindar (d) Manager

Ans. (b)

Q.22. A farmer who works on a piece of 1 hectare of land is treated as

(a) medium farmer (b) small farmer (c) large farmer (d) none of the above

Ans. (b)

Q.23. Scope of farming activity is limited in Palampur due to

(a) fixed amount of land (b) lack of irrigation

(c) lack of labour (d) none of the above

Ans. (a)

Q.24. What is done to surplus wheat in Palampur?

(a) Sold in the market (b) Destroyed (c) Stocked by self (d) Given in charity

Ans. (a)

Q.25. Consumption of chemical fertilisers is highest in which state of India?

(a) Punjab (b) Haryana (c) Rajasthan (d) Himachal Pardesh

Ans. (a)

Q.26. People of Palampur sell milk in the near by large village named

(a) Pitampura (b) Siliguri (c) Shahpur (d) Raiganj

Ans. (d)

Q.27. Out of the total cultivated areas in the country, how much area is irrigated today :

(a) less than 40% (b) less than 30% (c) less than 60% (d) less than 70%

Ans. (a)

Q.28. 'Operation Flood' is related to :

(a) control flood (b) produce fish (c) milk production (d) grain production

Ans. (c)

Q.30. Where do most of the small farmers borrow money to arrange for the capital in Palampur?

(a) Banks (b) Co-operative Societies (c) Village money lenders (d) Friends and relatives

Ans. (c)

Q.31. Which one among the following is not fixed capital?

(a) Machines (b) Buildings (c) Tools (d) Raw materials

Ans. (d)

Q.32. Why do the farmers of Palampur follow multiple cropping? Choose the correct answer.

(a) Because the water consumption is less in this method

(b) Because this method consumes less chemical fertilisers

(c) Because this method doesn't require fertile soils

(d) Because this method is the most common way of increasing production

Ans. (d)

Q.33. Which of the following transformed the system of irrigation in Palampur?

(a) Tubewells (b) Persian wheel (c) Rainwater harvesting (d) None of these

Ans. (a)

Q.34. How many families lives in Village Palampur?

(a) 150 (b) 250 (c) 350 (d) 450

Ans. (c)

Q.35. Which one among the following is a non-farm activity?

(a) Multiple croppping (b) Crop rotation (c) Dairy farming (d) Modern farming

Ans. (c)

Q.36. Which one of the following is not an effect of the modern farming?

(a) Soil degradation (b) Deforestation

(c) Decrease in groundwater (d) Water pollution

Ans. (d)

Q.37. Marginal farmers are those :

(a) who use modern methods for farming (b) who practice crop rotation for farming

(c) who did not have sufficient land for farming (d) who use modern methods of irrigation

Ans. (c)

Q.38. Working capital stands for :

(a) tools, machines and buildings (b) raw materials and money in hand

(c) total share capital (d) fixed deposits in financial institutions

Ans. (b)

Q.39. Which is the most abundant factor of production in India?

(a) Land (b) Capital (c) Labour (d) Tools and machines

Ans. (c)

Q.40. Multiple Cropping refers to :

(a) cultivation of wheat and rice

(b) cultivation of two crops in alternate rows

(c) cultivating more than one crop on the same field each year

(d) cultivating crops and rearing animals on the same farm

Ans. (c)

Q.41. The use of high yields with combinations of HYV (High Yielding Varieties) seeds, irrigation,

chemical fertilisers, pesticides etc. refers to :

(a) modern cropping (b) mixed cropping (c) multiple cropping (d) mega cropping

Ans. (a)

Q.42. Which product is sold by Mishri Lal traders in Shahapur

(a) Jaggery (b) Cotton Textile (c) Machine Tools (d) Fertilisers

Ans. (a)

Q.43. Finance raised to operate a business is the :

(a) labour (b) enterprise (c) land (d) capital

Ans. (d)

Q.44. 'Bigha' and Guintha' are :

(a) the type of village house (b) the types of Hybrid seeds

(c) the measuring units of grain (d) the measuring units of land area in village

Ans. (d)

Q.45. At present, what is the percentage of the people who are engaged in the rural areas in Non-farming

activities :

(a) 14% (b) 24% (c) 34% (d) 44%

Ans. (b)

Q.46. Which sector includes Agriculture and Animal Husbandry?

(a) Primary Sector (b) Secondary Sector (c) Tertiary Sector (d) None of these

Ans. (a)

Q.47. Which one of the following terms is used for measuring crop produced on a given piece of land

during a single season?

(a) Yield (b) Productivity (c) Cultivation (d) Output

Ans. (a)

Q.48. What percentage of total land area is cultivated by Medium and Large farmers? Choose the correct

answer.

(a) 36 (b) 50 (c) 85 (d) 64

Ans. (d)

What is Democracy, Why Democracy

 Q.1. The word 'Democracy' comes from the Greek word -

(a) Democracia (b) Demokratia (c) Demos (d) Kratia

Ans. (b)

Q.2. What kind of government is there in Myanmar?

(a) Government elected by the people (b) Communist government

(c) Army rule (d) Monarchy

Ans. (c)

Q.3. The head of the government in Nepal is the :

(a) President (b) Prime Minister (c) King (d) Vice President

Ans. (a)

Q.4. Who led a military coup in Pakistan in 1999?

(a) Benazir Bhutto (b) Nawaz Sharif (c) Pervez Musharraf (d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

Q.5. In August 2002, Musharraf issued a 'Legal Framework Order' that amended the Constitution

of Pakistan. According to this Order, the President could :

(a) appoint the National Assemblies (b) dismiss the National and Provincial Assemblies

(c) amend the Constitution on his own (d) declare elections.

Ans. (b)

Q.6. In which case was the real power with external powers and not with the locally elected representatives?

(a) India in Sri Lanka (b) US in Iraq (c) USSR in Communist Poland (d) Both (b) and (c)

Ans. (d)

Q.7. 'One person, one vote' means

(a) One person is to be voted by all (b) One person has one vote and each vote has one value

(c) A person can vote only once in his life (d) Both (a) and (c)

Ans. (b)

Q.8. How many members are elected to the National People's Congress from all over China?

(a) 3050 (b) 3000 (c) 4000 (d) 2000

Ans. (b)

Q.9. Why can the Chinese government not be called a democratic government even though elections are

held there?

(a) Army participates in election (b) Government is not accountable to the people

(c) Some parts of China are not represented at all (d) Government is always formed by the Communist

Party

Ans. (d)

Q.10. Which party always won elections in Mexico since its independence in 1930 until 2000?

(a) Revolutionary Party (b) Mexican Revolutionary Party

(c) Institutional Revolutionary Party (d) Institutional Party

Ans. (c)

Q.11. Democracy must be based on

(a) One-party system (b) Free and fair election

(c) Choice from only the ruling party (d) All the above

Ans. (b)

Q.12. When did Zimbabwe attain independence and from whom?

(a) 1970, from Black minority rule (b) 1880, from White minority rule

(c) 1980, from Americans (d) 1980, from White minority rule

Ans. (d)

Q.13. Which party has ruled Zimbabwe since its independence and who is its ruler?

(a) ZANU-PF, Robert Mugabe (b) ZANU-PF, Kenneth Kaunda

(c) Zimbabwe Freedom Party, Nelson Mandela (d) Zimbabwe Party, P Johnson

Ans. (a)

Q.14. Which of these statements is/are correct in the case of Zimbabwe?

(a) Popular governments are always democratic (b) Popular governments can be undemocratic

(c) Popular leaders can be autocratic (d) Both (b) and (c)

Ans. (d)

Q.15. Which of these features is/are necessary to provide the basic rights to the citizens?

(a) Citizens should be free to think (b) Should be free to form associations

(c) Should be free to raise protest (d) All the above

Ans. (d)

Q.16. Which organ of the government is required to protect the rights of the citizens?

(a) Executive (b) Legislature (c) Independent judiciary (d) Police

Ans. (c)

Q.17. A democratic government has to respect some rules after winning the elections. Which of these points

is not a part of those rules?

(a) Respecting guarantees given to the minorities.

(b) Every major decision has to go through a series of consultations.

(c) Office-bearers are not accountable. (d) Office-bearers have some responsibilities.

Ans. (c)

Q.18. What is Constitutional Law?

(a) Provisions given in the Constitution (b) Law to make Constitution

(c) Law to set up Constituent Assembly (d) None of the above

Ans. (a)

Q.19. Which of these is permitted under the Rule of Law?

(a) Prime Minister can be punished for violating the Constitution. (b) Police has a right to kill anybody.

(c) Women can be paid lesser salaries. (d) President can rule for as long as he wants.

Ans. (a)

Q.20. Some of the drawbacks of democracy are

(a) instability and delays (b) corruption and hypocrisy

(c) politicians fighting among themselves (d) all the above

Ans. (d)

Q.21. In which of these cases can democracy not provide a complete solution?

(a) Removing poverty completely (b) Providing education to all

(c) Giving jobs to all (d) All the above

Ans. (d)

Q.22. In which period did China face one of the worst famines that have occurred in the world?

(a) 1932-36 (b) 1958-61 (c) 2001-2002 (d) 2004-2007

Ans. (b)

Q.23. A democratic government is better than a non-democratic government because

(a) it may or may not be accountable (b) it always responds to the needs of the people

(c) it is a more accountable form of government (d) none of the above

Ans. (c)

Q.24. Democracy improves the quality of decision-making because

(a) decisions are taken by educated people

(b) decisions are taken by consultation and discussion

(c) decisions are taken over a long period of time

(d) all decisions are approved by judiciary

Ans. (b)

Q.25. In any society, people are bound to have difference of opinions and interests. Which is a better way

of dealing with these conflicts?

(a) By brutal power exercised by the government (b) By allowing one group to dictate terms to others

(c) By providing equal opportunities to all

(d) By opting for a strong leader who should have all the powers.

Ans. (c)

Q.26. How does democracy allow us to correct its own mistakes?

(a) Mistakes are hidden and cannot be corrected

(b) Re-electing the same government to enable it to correct its mistakes

(c) The rulers can be changed (d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

Q.27. The most common form that democracy takes in our time is that of

(a) limited democracy (b) representative democracy

(c) maximum democracy (d) none of the above

Ans. (b)

Q.28. Which of these is not an instance of broader meaning of democracy?

(a) Taking opinion of all the family members before taking a decision

(b) Being allowed to ask questions in the class

(c) Having no say in one's marriage plan (d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

Q.29. Which body in Indian political system is an example of direct democracy?

(a) Zila Parishad (b) Panchayat Samiti (c) Gram Sabha (d) Vidhan Sabha

Ans. (c)

Q.30. Which of these is an example of perfect democracy?

(a) USA (b) UK (c) India (d) None of the above

Ans. (d)

Q.31. Which of these is not a feature of monarchy, dictatorship or one-party rule?

(a) Censorship of press (b) No opposition party or parties

(c) Citizens taking part in politics (d) One-man rule

Ans. (c)

Nazism and The Rise of Hitler

Physical Divisions of India

French Revolution

 

MCQ of Class IX Social Science Chapters

History
1. The French Revolution - MCQ on French Revolution
2. Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution - MCQs on Russian Revolution
3. Nazism and the Rise of Hitler - MCQ on Nazism and the Rise of Hitler
4. Forest Society and Colonialism - MCQ on Forest Society & Colonialism
5. Pastoralists in the Modern World - MCQs on Pastoralists in the Modern World
6. Peasants and Farmers - MCQs on Peasants and Farmers

Geography
1. India - Size and Location - MCQ on India - Size &Location

2.Physical Divisions of India -  MCQ on Physical Divisions of India
3. Drainage - MCQs on Drainage
4. Climate - MCQs on Climate
5. Natural Vegetation and Wildlife - MCQs of Natural Vegetation and Wildlife
6. Population - MCQs on Population

Civics
1. What is Democracy, Why Democracy - MCQ on What is Democracy, Why Democracy

2. Constitutional Design - MCQs on Constitutional Design
3. Electoral Politics - MCQs on Electoral Politics
4. Working of Institutions - MCQs on Working of Institutions
5. Democratic Rights - MCQs on Democratic Rights

Economics
1. The Story of Village Palampore - MCQ on The Story of Village Palampore

2. People as Resource - MCQ on People as Resource
3. Poverty as Challenge - MCQ on Poverty as Challenge
4. Food Security - MCQs on Food Security

Population

Q.1. Who among the following are resource creating factors as well as resources themsleves?
(a)  Animals                   (b) Plants                      (c) Human beings         (d) Nature
Q.2. In which of the following instances does a natural event like a flood or Tsunami become a 'disaster'?
(a)  Only when they affect a crowded village or town
(b)  When the natural events are of great intensity
(c)  When they happen in the environment       (d) When they affect large uninhabited areas
Q.3. The numbers, distribution, growth and characteristics of which of the following provide the basic background for understanding and appreciating all aspects of the environment?
(a)  Natural resource     (b) Population              (c) Flora                        (d) Fauna
Q.4. Why is it important to know how many people are there in a country, where do they live, how and why their numbers are increasing and what are their characteristics?
(a)  Population is the pivotal element in social studies
(b)  To exploit the natural resources of the country
(c)  Human beings are producers and consumers of resources
(d)  None of the above
Q.5. From which of the following do we get information regarding the population of our country?
(a)  Textbooks                (b) Survey of India      (c) Census     (d) Geological Survey of India
Q.6. Which of the following is a major concern of study about the population of a country?
(a)  Population size and distribution
(b)  Population growth and processes of population change
(c)  Characteristics or qualities of the population                                    (d) All the above
Q.7. India accounts for what percentage of the world population?
(a)  1.02 per cent           (b) 2.4 per cent            (c) 3.28 per cent           (d) 17.5 per cent
Q.8. Which is the most populous state of India?
(a)  Maharashtra            (b) Uttar Pradesh         (c) Madhya Pradesh     (d) Rajasthan
Q.9. Which state has the lowest population ?                                                          
(a)  Uttar Pradesh          (b) Himachal Pradesh  (c) Goa                          (d) Sikkim
Q.10. Which of the following union territories of India has a very low population?
(a)  Andaman and Nicobar  (b) Lakshadweep    (c) Chandigarh              (d) Pondicherry
Q.11. Almost half of India's population lives in just five states. Which one of the following is not one of these five populous states?
(a)  Maharashtra         (b) Bihar                (c) West Bengal            (d) Arunachal Pradesh
Q.12. What percentage of India's population resides in the most populated state of India, Uttar
Pradesh?
(a)  31.2 per cent           (b) 16.16 per cent        (c) 9.42 per cent           (d) 7.41 per cent
Q.13. What percentage of India's population lives in Rajasthan, the biggest state in terms of area?
(a)  16.16 per cent         (b) 8.02 per cent          (c) 7.79 per cent           (d) 6 per cent
Q.14. The average number of persons per unit area, such as a square kilometre, is termed as which of the following?
(a)  Population distribution    (b) Population density   (c)  Absolute population      (d) Population growth
Q.15. Which one of the following countries has higher population density than India?
(a)  China                       (b) Bangladesh             (c) Canada                    (d) Korea
Q.16. Which of the following figures shows the population density of India?
(a)  1028 million persons (b) 3.28 million square km (c) 382 persons per sq km (d) 13 persons per sq km
Q.17. Which one of the following states has very high population density?
(a)  West Bengal      (b) Madhya Pradesh      (c) Rajasthan         (d) Arunachal Pradesh
Q.18. Which of the following states of India has very low population density?
(a)  Arunachal Pradesh        (b) Sikkim              (c) Orissa                      (d) Bihar
Q.19. Which of the following states of India has a moderate population density?
(a)  Jammu and Kashmir                                     (b) Rajasthan
(c)  Chhattisgarh                                                  (d) Tamil Nadu
Q.20. Which of the following southern states has a high population density?
(a)  Karnataka                (b) Andhra Pradesh      (c) Kerala                      (d) Tamil Nadu
Q.21. Which  of  the  following  reasons  is  responsible  for uneven  population  distribution  in
India?
(a)  Variations in topography or relief in different parts of India
(b)  Variations in climate and rainfall distribution
(c)  Variations in the rate of industrialisation and urbanisation
(d)  All the above
Q.22. Which of the following states has a population density below 100 persons per square kilometre?
(a)  Jammu and Kashmir     (b) Uttarakhand      (c) Himachal Pradesh        (d) Nagaland
Q.23. Which of the following states has a population density below 250 persons per square km?
(a)  Punjab                     (b) Haryana                  (c) Chhattisgarh            (d) Jharkhand
Q.24. Which one of the following is not one of the factors that resulted in high density of population in the Northern Plains?
(a)  Flat plains with fertile soil                          (b) Rich mineral deposits
(c)  Abundant rainfall                                          (d) Suitable conditions for agriculture
Q.25. Which of the following statements about population is correct?
(a)  Population is a dynamic phenomenon
(b)  The number, distribution and composition of population are static
(c)  Population of a country always increases with time
(d)  Migrations do not affect the population of a country
Q.26. The change in the number of inhabitants of a country during a specific period of time is referred to by which of the following terms?
(a)  Density of population                                   (b) Age composition
(c)  Population growth                                         (d) Absolute population
Q.27. The magnitude of population growth refers to which of the following?
(a)  The number of persons added each year or decade
(b)  The rate or the pace of population increase
(c)  The total population of an area          (d) The number of females per thousand males
Q.28. The rate or pace of population increase per year is referred to as  which of the following?
(a)  Absolute increase                                          (b) Magnitude of increase
(c)  Annual growth rate                                       (d) Population change
Q.29. Which of the following statements about population growth between 1951 to 1981 is true?
(a)  The annual rate of population growth was gradually decreasing (b)  The annual rate of population growth was steadily increasing (c)  The annual rate of population growth was static
(d)  Census reports were not available for all decades
Q.30. Which of the following changes in growth of population has been noted since 1981?
(a)  The annual rate of population growth continued to increase steadily
(b)  The annual rate of population growth shot up suddenly
(c)  The growth of population could not be computed due to absence of census
(d)  The rate of growth of population started declining gradully
Q.31. Which among the following is included in the policy framework of NPP 2000 ?
(a)  imparting free and compulsory school education upto 14 years age
(b)  reducing infant mortality rate
(c)  acheiving universal immunisation of children against all vaccine preventable diseases
(d)  all of these
Q.32. Which movement of the people across regions and teritories does not change the size of
the population ?
(a)  Internal (b) External (c) Death rate (d) Birth rate
Q.33. What is the rank of India among the population of different countries of the world?
(a)  First                         (b) Second                    (c) Third                        (d) Fourth
Q.34. The main cause for the high growth of our population is                            
(a)  Rise in death rate     (b) Decrease in birth rate   (c)  Decline of death rate         (d) None of these
Q.35. What is the average sex ratio of India as per 2011 census ?                        
(a)  900                          (b) 933                          (c) 940                          (d) None of these
Q.36. What is sex ratio?                                                                                                  
(a)  Number of females per thousand males (b)  Number of females per hundred males
(c)  The study of population growth            (d)  Difference between birth rate and death rate
Q.37. Which one of the following is the most significant feature of the Indian population?
(a)  Declining birth rate                                      (b) Improvement in the literacy level
(c)  The size of its adolescent population          (d) Improvement in health conditions
Q.38. What was the population density of India according to 2001?                      
(a)  124 person/km2      (b) 224 person/km2       (c)  324 person/km2       (d) 24 person/km2
Q.39. A large proportion of children in a population is a result of :                      
(a)  High birth rate   (b) High death rate    (c)  High life expectancies       (d) More married couples
Q.40. The number of people in different age groups is referred as :                      
(a)  Sex ratio        (b) Age composition   (c)  adolescent population       (d) occupational structure
Q.41. Which is the most populous country of the world?                                        
(a)  India                        (b) United States          (c) China                       (d) Russia
Q.42. As per 2001 census, which of the following states has the least density of population?
(a)  West Bengal           (b) Bihar               (c)  Arunachal Pradesh                 (d) Uttar Pradesh
Q.43. Name the Union Territory having the highest density of population.            
(a)  Chandigarh            (b) Delhi                 (c)  Puducherry (Pondicherry)     (d) Daman and Diu
Q.44. In how many years is the official enumeration of population carried out for census?
(a)  1 year                      (b) 5 years                    (c) 10 years     (d) 2 years
Q.45. Which of the following is an important social indicator to measure the extent of equality between males and females in a society at a given time?                                
(a)  Age Composition    (b) Literacy Rate          (c) Sex Ratio                (d) Death Rate
Q.46. Which of the following factors are responsible for sparse population?        
(a)  Flat plains and abundant rainfall                 (b) Rugged terrain and unfavourable climate
(c)  Fertile soil and abundant rain fall               (d) Rugged terrain and favourable climate
Q.47. Name the state having the highest percentage of literacy level :                    
(a)  Kerala                      (b) Maharashtra            (c) Punjab                     (d) West Bengal
Q.48. What year is considered a great demographic divide in India?                    
(a)  1911                         (b) 1921                        (c) 1931                        (d) 1751
Q.49. The magnitude of population growth refers to :                                            
(a)  The total population of an area                   (b) The number of persons added each year
(c)  The rate at which the population increases  (d) The number of females per thousand males
Q.50. Which state is the most populous state according to 2001 Census?              
(a)  Bihar                        (b) Uttar Pradesh         (c) West Bengal            (d) Madhya Pradesh
Q.51. Birth rate is the number of live births per thousand persons in :                
(a)  10 years                  (b) 5 years                    (c) 2 years                    (d) 1 year
Q.52. When did the National Population Policy come into effect?                          
(a)  2001                        (b) 1947                        (c) 1952                        (d) 2000
Q.53. The country that has a higher population density than India is :                
(a)  China                       (b) USA                        (c) Britain                     (d) Bangladesh
Q.54. The total area of India accounts for how much percent of the world's area?
(a)  2.4 percent              (b) 16.7 percent            (c) 3.28 percent            (d) 1.02 percent
Q.55. Which  of  the  following  migration  of  population  does  not  change  the  size  of  the population?
(a)  External migration                                        (b) Internal migration
(c)  International migration                                 (d) National migration

1.(c), 2.(a), 3.(b), 4.(c), 5.(c), 6.(d), 7.(d), 8.(b), 9.(d), 10.(b), 11.(d), 12.(b), 13.(d), 14.(b), 15.(b),, 16.(c), 17.(a), 18.(a), 19.(d), 20.(c), 21.(d), 22.(a), 23.(c), 24.(b), 25.(a). 26.(c), 27.(a), 28.(c), 29.(b), 30.(d), 31.(d), 32.(a), 33.(b), 34.(c), 35.(c), 36.(a), 37.(a), 38.(c), 39.(a), 40.(b), 41.(c), 42.(c), 43.(b),, 44.(c), 45.(c), 46.(b), 47.(a), 48.(b), 49.(b), 50.(b), 51.(d), 52.(d), 53.(d), 54.(a), 55.(b)

Working of the Institution

Q.1. What is meant by 'Office Memorandum'?
(a)  Order issued by the Government of India  (b) Memoirs of the leaders of the past
(c)  Important defence documents                      (d) None of the above
Q.2. When was the Second Backward Class Commission appointed?
(a)  1989                        (b) 1979                        (c) 1999                        (d) 2001
Q.3. Why did people react strongly to the Mandal Commission Report?
(a)  It left out many backward communities      (b) It affected thousands of job opportunities
(c)  Some high castes wanted to be included in it       (d)  Both (a) and (c)
Q.4. What do the Civil Servants do?
(a)  They take important policy decisions          (b) They implement the ministers' decisions
(c)  They settle the disputes                                (d) None of the above
Q.5. What is 'Parliament'?
(a)  Assembly of elected representatives at the national level
(b)  A body consisting of appointed ministers
(c)  Body comprising judges                               (d) Assembly of only appointed members
Q.6. Which of these are correct so far as powers of the Parliament are concerned, apart from making laws?
(a)  Exercising control over the government     (b) Controlling finance of the country
(c)  Serving as the highest forum of discussion and debate
(d)  All the above
Q.7. Apart from Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, who else constitutes the Parliament?
(a)  Prime Minister        (b) Chief Minister        (c) Governor                 (d) President
Q.8. What happens if there is a difference of opinion between Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha over an ordinary bill?
(a)  The President decides the matter                 (b) The will of Rajya Sabha prevails
(c)  There is a joint sitting of the two Houses  (d) The bill is cancelled
Q.9. For how long can the Rajya Sabha delay a Money Bill?
(a)  15 days                    (b) 1 month                  (c) 3 months                 (d) 14 days
Q.10. Who is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha?
(a)  Speaker                    (b) Vice President        (c) President                  (d) Prime Minister
Q.11. Two features of Indian judicial system are:
(a)  Independent Judiciary                                   (b) Integrated Judiciary
(c)  Dependent Judiciary                                     (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.12. Which of these disputes can the Supreme Court take?
(a)  Between citizens of the country                  (b) Between citizens and the government
(c)  Between two or more state governments    (d) All the above
Q.13. Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts?
(a)  President, according to his own wishes      (b) President, on the advice of the PM
(c)  President on the advice of the PM in consultation with the Chief Justice of India (d)  None of the above
Q.14. How can a judge of the Supreme Court be removed?
(a)  By the Supreme Court itself                        (b) By the Parliament through impeachment
(c)  By the President alone                                 (d) By the Police
Q.15. What is the power of the Supreme Court to judge the constitutional validity of a law passed by the Parliament or an action of the Executive called?
(a)  Judicial Revision    (b) Judicial Review   (c) Judicial Consent    (d) Judicial Permission
Q.16. Which of the following institutions can make changes to the existing law of the country?
(a)  The Supreme Court        (b) The President      (c)  The Prime Minister         (d) The Parliament
Q.17. What does the Supreme Court say over the Parliament's power of amendment of the Constitution?
(a)  Parliament can amend the entire Constitution
(b)  Parliament can amend only the basic structure of the Constitution (c)  Parliament cannot amend the basic structure of the Constitution (d)  None of the above
Q.18. Which body acts as the guardian of Fundamental Rights?
(a)  District Courts                                               (b) Supreme Court
(c)  Election Commission                                    (d) Legislature
Q.19. What is a Public Interest Litigation?                                                                
(a)  Filing a case in the court in the interest of the public      (b)  Reviewing of Supreme Court judgements
(c)  Procedure of removal of a judge                 (d) None of the above
Q.20. What are the two types of 'Executives' in India?
(a)  Political Executive     (b) Permanent Executive    (c)  Judicial Executive          (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.21. Why does the political executive have more powers than the permanent executive?
(a)  Because hardly any expertise is required in taking policy decisions
(b)  Because political executive consists of the direct representatives of the people
(c)  Political leaders are more educated             (d) None of the above
Q.22. Who holds the most important and powerful position in the government?  
(a)  President                  (b) Vice President        (c) Prime Minister        (d) Speaker
Q.23. Whom does the President appoint as the Prime Minister?
(a)  Anyone he likes                                            (b) Leader of the majority party
(c)  MP who has secured the largest number of votes   (d)  None of the above
Q.24. What is the tenure of office of the Prime Minister?
(a)  5 years                                                           (b) 6 years
(c)  As long as he wants                                     (d) He does not have a fixed tenure
Q.25. What is the government formed by an alliance of two or more political parties called?
(a)  Cooperation government                               (b) Coalition government
(c)  Consensus government                                 (d) Cooperative government
Q.26. Who among the following is a part of the political executive?
(a)  Home Minister                                              (b) District Collector
(c)  Secretary of the Ministry of Home Affairs    (d)  Director General of Police
Q.27. Which organ of the government has the power to interpret the Constitution?
(a)  Supreme Court        (b) District Court         (c) High Court              (d) Both (a) and (c)
Q.28. About how many ministers are there in the Cabinet?
(a)  80                            (b) 60                            (c) 20                            (d) 10
Q.29. Which of these options is/are correct regarding the powers of the Prime Minister?
(a)  He chairs the Cabinet meetings                     (b)  He distributes work to the different departments
(c)  He can dismiss ministers                              (d) All the above
Q.30. What is the position of the President?
(a)  Nominal head of the state                            (b) Real head of the state
(c)  Hereditary head of the state                         (d) None of the above
Q.31. Which of the following statements is not true?                                              
(a)  The Judiciary safeguards the laws              (b) The Legislature implements the laws
(c)  The political executives are more powerful than the permanent executives
(d)  The permanent executives comprises the civil servants
Q.32. The Council of Ministers at the centre is responsible to :                          
(a)  The President                                                (b) The Prime Minister
(c)  The Rajya Sabha                                          (d) The Lok Sabha
Q.33. The president of India is elected by                                                                
(a)  Direet Election by citizens ... 18 yers of age
(b)  Indirect Election by the Electoral College
(c)  The Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers
(d)  None of the above
Q.34. President of India is :                                                                                        
(a)  Head of the Government                              (b) Head of the State
(c)  Head of the parliament                                 (d) None of the above
Q.35. The judges of Supreme Court are appointed by :                                          
(a)  President                 (b) Prime Minister       (c) Chief Justice           (d) Law Minister

1.(a), 2.(b), 3.(b), 4.(b), 5.(a), 6.(d), 7.(d), 8.(c), 9.(d), 10.(a), 11.(d), 12.(d), 13.(c), 14.(b), 15.(b)
16.(d), 17.(c), 18.(b), 19.(a), 20.(d), 21.(b), 22.(c), 23.(b), 24.(d), 25.(b), 26.(a), 27.(a), 28.(c), 29.(d)
30.(a), 31.(b), 32.(d), 33.(b), 34.(b), 35.(a)

Constitutional Design

Q.1. On what charges was Nelson Mandela sentenced to life imprisonment?
(a)  For treason                                                   (b) For breaking the laws
(c)  For corruption charges                                 (d) For possessing illegal property
Q.2. What is apartheid?                                                                                        
(a)  Election in proportion to population
(b)  Official policy of discrimination against the Blacks
(c)  Equality among all
(d)  None of the above
Q.3. In which way did the system of apartheid discriminate among the South Africans?
(a)  Restricted social contacts between the races
(b)  Segregation of public facilities
(c)  Created race-specific job categories
(d)  All the above
Q.4. Name the organisation that led the struggle against the policies of segregation.
(a)  African National Conference                       (b) African Neutral Congress
(c)  African National Congress                          (d) All National Party
Q.5. Why did the white regime decide to change its policies?
(a)  Increase in protests and struggles
(b)  Government realised that repression was becoming difficult
(c)  Rise of sympathetic attitude in government for the blacks
(d)  Both (a) and (b)
Q.6. Which of these did not form a part of the changed attitude of South African government? [Important]
(a)  Discriminatory laws were repealed
(b)  Ban on political parties and media was lifted (c)  Nelson Mandela was freed from imprisonment (d)  More discriminatory laws were passed
Q.7. When did South Africa become a democratic country?
(a)  26 April, 1995                                              (b) 26 April, 1994 (c)  24 March, 1994                                            (d) 27 April, 1996
Q.8. With the end of apartheid, who became the first President of South African Republic?
(a)  F.W. de Klerk                                                (b) P.W. Botha
(c)  Nelson Mandela                                            (d) None of the above
Q.9. Name the autobiography of Nelson Mandela.
(a)  The Long Walk to Freedom                        (b) South Africa Wins Freedom
(c)  Walk to Freedom                                          (d) Our Freedom
Q.10. What did the black population want in the new Constitution?
(a)  A black President
(b)  Substantial social and economic rights
(c)  Whites should be turned out of the country
(d)  Apartheid for the whites
Q.11. What did the white minority want from the new Constitution?
(a)  Protect its privileges and property              (b) A separate country for themselves
(c)  Reservation in legislature                            (d) Some special rights
Q.12. During negotiations for making the Constitution, the whites agreed to
(a)  The principle of majority rule
(b)  One person one vote
(c)  Accept some basic rights for the poor and the workers
(d)  All the above
Q.13. Which of the following sentences is correct?
(a)  All countries that have constitutions are necessarily democratic
(b)  All countries that are democratic necessarily have constitutions
(c)  Both (a) and (b)                                           (d) None of the above
Q.14. When did Motilal Nehru draft a Constitution for India?
(a)  1927                        (b) 1926                       (c) 1929                        (d) 1928
Q.15. Where was the 1931 session of Indian National Congress held?
(a)  Nagpur                    (b) Karachi                   (c) Calcutta                   (d) Delhi
Q.16. Which of these features were accepted by all the Indian leaders much before they sat down to make the Constitution?
(a)  Universal adult franchise                             (b) Right to freedom
(c)  Protection of the rights of minorities          (d) All the above
Q.17. According to which Act were the elections held to provincial legislatures in India in 1937?
(a)  Government of India Act, 1935                   (b) Government of India Act, 1919
(c)  Government of India Act, 1909                   (d) None of the above
Q.18. Which of these inspired our leaders while framing the Constitution?
(a)  Ideals of the French Revolution                  (b) Parliamentary democracy in Britain
(c)  Bill of Rights in US                                    (d) All the above
Q.19. Which revolution in the world inspired the Indians to set up a socialist economy? [Important]
(a)  French Revolution                                        (b) Turkish Revolution
(c)  Russian Revolution                                      (d) American War of Independence
Q.20. Name the body which framed the Constitution of India?
(a)  General Assembly                                        (b) Constituent Assembly
(c)  Constitutional Assembly                              (d) People's Assembly
Q.21. When did the Assembly adopt the Constitution?
(a)  26 November, 1949                                          (b) 26 December, 1949 (c)  26 January, 1950                                              (d) 26 January, 1949
Q.22. Who was the chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
(a)  Dr. Rajendra Prasad                                     (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c)  Dr. B.R. Ambedkar                                      (d) Abul Kalam Azad
Q.23. How many amendments were considered before adopting the Constitution?
(a)  Around 500             (b) Around 2000          (c) Around 1550           (d) Around 1000
Q.24. Who said the following?
"I shall work for an India in which the poorest shall feel that it is their country ..... in which all communities shall live in perfect harmony."
(a)  Mahatma Gandhi                                          (b) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(c)  Dr. B.R. Ambedkar                                       (d) Sarojini Naidu
Q.25. Who among these leaders was a bitter critic of Mahatma Gandhi?
(a)  Maulana Abul Kalam Azad                         (b) Sarojini Naidu
(c)  Dr. B.R. Ambedkar                                       (d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Q.26. Whose famous speech are these lines a part of?
"The ambition of the greatest man of our generation has been to wipe every tear from every eye. That may be beyond us, but as long as there are tears and suffering, so longour work will not be over."
(a)  Mahatma Gandhi     (b) Jawaharlal Nehru    (c)  Maulana Abul Kalam Azad      (d) Vallabhbhai Patel
Q.27. "The ambition of the greatest man of our generation has been to wipe every tear from every eye." Who was Nehru referring to in his speech?
(a)  Abdul Ghaffar Khan       (b) Mahatma Gandhi         (c)  Dr. B.R. Ambedkar   (d) Vallabhbhai Patel
Q.28. The Constitution begins with a short statement of its basic values. What is it called?
(a)  Preface                    (b) Preamble                (c) Introduction            (d) Article
Q.29. Match these guiding values with their meanings.
(A)  Sovereign                 (i) government will not favour any particular religion
(B)  Republic                 (ii) People will have supreme right to make decisions without outside interference
(C)  Fraternity               (iii) Head of the state is an elected person
(D)  Secular                   (iv) There should be a feeling of brotherhood among all the people
(a) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
(b) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(c) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii)
(d) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
Q.30. Which of these countries is/are examples of a Republic?
(a)  USA                        (b) India                       (c) South Africa           (d) All the above
Q.31. What kind of 'Justice' does our Preamble provide?
(a)  Economic Justice   (b) Political Justice      (c) Social Justice          (d) All the above
Q.32. Which of these positions is correct in relation to the 'Sovereign' status of India?
(a)  USA can decide India's foreign policy
(b)  USSR can support the CPI (M) in setting up its government here
(c)  The Indian government only can decide its internal and external policies
(d)  Pakistan can control India's Armed Forces
Q.33. Who was the chairman of the Constituent Assembly?                                  
(a)  Jawaharlal Nehru                                          (b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c)  B.R. Ambedkar                                             (d) Mahatma Gandhi
Q.34. Which of the following days is celebrated to mark the enforcement of the constitution?
(a)  Republic Day                                                (b) Independence Day
(c)  Gandhi Jayanti                                              (d) Constitution Enforcement Day
Q.35. The Indian constitution has borrowed from                                                  
(i)  Ideas from French Revolution                     (ii) The British Constitution
(iii)  The Bill of Rights of the US                     (iv) Israeli Constitution
(a)  i, ii, iv                     (b) i, ii, iii,                   (c) ii, iii, iv                  (d) i, ii, iv
Q.36. The Constituent Assembly met for how many days?                                      
(a)  114                          (b) 280                         (c) 365                          (d) 150
Q.37. Who was the chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian constitution ?
(a)  Dr. B.R. Ambedkar                                      (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c)  C. Rajgopalachari                                         (d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Q.38. When did the Indian constitution come into force?                                        
(a)  26th Nov, 1949       (b) 15th August, 1947 (c) 26th Jan, 1950        (d) 26th Jan, 1930
Q.39. Who prepared the draft of a constitution for India in 1928?                        
(a)  Motilal Nehru         (b) B. R. Ambedkar      (c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Q.40. When was the Constitution of India adopted?                                                
(a)  26th Nov, 1949       (b) 26th Jan, 1949       (c) 26th Jan, 1950        (d) 26th Nov, 1950
Q.41. Drafting Committee was chaired by:                                                                
(a)  Gandhiji                  (b) Pt. J.L. Nehru        (c) Baldev Singh        (d) Dr B.R. Ambedkar
Q.42. Mahatma Gandhi wrote :                                                                                    
(a)  Young India                                                  (b) New India
(c)  Discovery of India                                        (d) The Wonder That Was India
Ans. (a)
Q.43. In the constituent assembly, the first captain of the Indian hockey team also had a role.
(a)  Baldev Singh          (b) Somnath Lahiri      (c) Jaipal Singh            (d) K.M. Munshi
Q.44. Congress session of 1931 was held at :
(a)  Karachi                   (b) Lucknow (c) Kanpur (d) Madras, now Chennai
Q.45. In which year did Motilal Nehru and others draft a constitution for India?    
(a)  1931                        (b) 1928                        (c) 1929                        (d) 1932
Q.46. Who was the President of India's Constituent Assembly?                            
(a)  Motilal Nehru         (b) Rajendra Prasad     (c) Sarojini Naidu        (d) B. R. Ambedkar

1.(a), 2.(b), 3.(d), 4.(c), 5.(d), 6.(d), 7.(b), 8.(c),9.(a), 10.(b), 11.(a), 12.(d), 13.(b), 14.(d), 15.(b), 16.(d), 17.(a), 18.(d), 19.(c), 20.(b), 21.(a), 22.(c), 23.(b), 24.(a), 25.(c), 26.(b), 27.(b), 28.(b), 29.(b), 30.(d), 31.(d), 32.(c), 33.(b), 34.(a), 35.(b), 36.(a), 37.(a), 38.(c), 39.(a), 40.(a), 41.(d), 42.(a),43.(a), 44.(a), 45.(b), 46.(b)

Electoral Politics

Q.1. Who led the 'Nyaya Yudh'?
(a)  Chaudhary Charan Singh                             (b) Chaudhary Devi Lal
(c)  Ajit Singh                                                      (d) None of the above
Q.2. What was the promise Devi Lal made to the farmers and small businessmen?
(a)  He would waive the loans of farmers and small businessmen
(b)  He would lessen the rate of interest on their loans
(c)  He would modernise agriculture
(d)  He would provide free seeds and pesticides to them
Q.3. Which of the following statements about the reasons for conducting elections are false?
(a)  Elections enable people to judge the performance of the government
(b)  People elect the representatives of their choice in an election
(c)  Elections enable people to evaluate the performance of the judiciary
(d)  Elections enable people to indicate which policies they prefer
Q.4. Which of these is not a feature of Indian democracy? (a)  India has the largest number of voters in the world (b)  India's Election Commission is very powerful
(c)  In India, everyone above the age of 18 has a right to vote
(d)  In India, the losing parties refuse to accept the electoral verdict
Q.5. Which of these choices are made by voters in elections to a representative democracy?
(a)  Voters can choose who will make laws for them
(b)  They can choose who will form the government
(c)  They can choose the party whose policies will guide the government
(d)  All the above
Q.6. Which of these is not a condition of a democratic election?
(a)  Everyone is allowed to vote
(b)  There are political parties to contest elections
(c)  The candidate not preferred by people gets elected
(d)  Elections are held at regular intervals
Q.7. What is meant by the term 'constituency'?
(a)  Place where the copy of constitution is kept
(b)  A particular area from where voters elect a representative to the Lok Sabha / Vidhan Sabha
(c)  A body of voters
(d)  None of the above
Q.8. Which of the options below are the demerits of the electoral competition?
(a)  Creates a sense of factionalism                   (b) Parties use dirty tricks to win elections
(c)  Parties respect each other                            (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.9. In India, elections for which of these bodies are held after every five years? (a)  Rajya Sabha                                                  (b) Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha (c)  Vidhan Parishad                                            (d) Only Lok Sabha
Q.10. Elections held after the term of 5 years of Lok Sabha are called
(a)  Mid-term elections (b) General elections   (c) By-elections            (d) Special elections
Ans. (b)
Q.11. What is an election held for only one constituency to fill the vacancy caused due to the death or resignation of a member called?
(a)  By-election (b) Mid-term election (c) General election (d) None of the above
Q.12. Into how many constituencies is the country divided for Lok Sabha elections?
(a)  544                          (b) 543                          (c) 560                          (d) 535
Q.13. Constituencies called 'wards' are made for the election to
(a)  Parliament                                                      (b) State Legislative Assembly
(c)  State Legislative Council                             (d) Panchayats and municipal bodies
Q.14. Which of these options is not correct?
(a)  In an open electoral competition, certain weaker sections may not get elected
(b)  Resources, education and contacts may be lacking in their case
(c)  Influential people may prevent them from winning elections
(d)  Influential people help certain weaker sections in winning elections.
Q.15. How many seats are reserved in Lok Sabha for the Scheduled Tribes?
(a)  40                            (b) 41                            (c) 51                            (d) 71
Q.16. How many seats are reserved for women in rural and urban local bodies?
(a) half of the seats (b) one-third of the seats
(c) two-third of the seats (d) none of the above
Q.17. Which of these is not a part of the district and local level bodies?
(a)  Panchayats              (b) Municipalities         (c) Corporations            (d) Lok Sabha
Q.18. Which of the options given below are applicable to the principle of Universal Adult
Franchise?
(a)  Only rich and educated can vote                 (b) Only men can vote
(c)  All citizens aged 18 and above can vote    (d) Only employed people can vote
Q.19. For voting, the voter has to show which of these as identity proof?
(a)  Ration card                                                    (b) Driving license
(c)  Election Photo Identity Card (EPIC)           (d) Any of these
Q.20. What is the minimum age required to contest an election to Lok Sabha?
(a)  20 years                  (b) 18 years                  (c) 25 years                  (d) 30 years
Q.21. What are the details the candidates have to give in the legal declaration before contesting the elections?
(a)  Serious criminal cases pending against them
(b)  Details of assets and liabilities of the candidate and his or her family
(c)  Educational qualification of the candidate  (d) All the above
Q.22. What is a set of norms and guidelines, which is to be followed by political parties and contesting candidates during the election time, called?
(a)  Discipline Roll        (b) Code of Conduct   (c) Conduct rules          (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.23. Which of these is permitted under the Code of Conduct for election campaign?
(a)  Use of place of worship for election propaganda
(b)  Use of government vehicle for elections    (c) Use of media
(d)  Once elections are announced, making any promises of providing public facilities
Q.24. Which candidate is declared elected?
(a)  One who secures the highest number of votes from a constituency
(b)  One who secures two-third majority           (c) One who secures
(d)  None of the above
Q.25. Name the body which conducts the elections in India.                                    
(a)  Supreme Court        (b) Parliament               (c) Cabinet            (d) Election Commission
Q.26. How is the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) chosen?
(a)  Appointed by the President                          (b) Elected by the people
(c)  Elected by the MPs                                      (d) Elected by MPs and MLAs
Q.27. When on election duty, under whose control do the government officers work?
(a)  Central Government                                      (b) Election Commission
(c)  District Magistrate                                        (d) District Court
Q.28. Which of these powers is/are exercised by the Election Commission to ensure free and fair elections?
(a)  Election Commission tightens norms for poll expenses
(b)  Election Commission orders repoll in 398 booths (c)  Election Commission appoints new Haryana DGP (d)  Both (a) and (b)
Q.29. In India, who votes in a larger proportion in the elections?                          
(a)  Poor and illiterate                                         (b) Rich and privileged
(c)  Educated people                                            (d) Women
Q.30. What does the term 'incumbent' mean?
(a)  The current holder of a political office (b)  The candidate contesting the election
(c)  The outgoing candidate of the dissolved House   (d)  None of the above
Q.31. An electoral malpractice in which a person assumes the identity of another for unlawful purposes is :
(a)  Incumbent (b) Rigging (c) Impersonation (d) Turnact
Q.32. The Election Commission is :
(a)  An elected body (b) An appointed body   (c)  An independent body (d) Both (b) and (c)
Q.33. Which among the following is not correct?                                                    
(a)  The Election Commission conducts all elections for the Parliament and Assemblies
(b)  The Election Commission directs and controls the preparation of electoral roll
(c)  The Election Commission cannot fix the election dates
(d)  The Election Commission does scrutiny of nomination papers
Q.34. Which of the following is not allowed while carrying out election campaign?
(a)  Giving money to voters to cast vote for candidates
(b)  Using TV channels
(c)  Door to door canvassing
(d)  Contacting voters on phone
Q.35. Which of the following statement is incorrect?                                              
(a)  All citizens above the age of 21 can vote in an election
(b)  Every citizen has the right to vote regardless of caste religion or gender
(c)  Some criminals and persons with unsound mind can be denied the right to vote in rare situations
(d)  It is the responsibility of the government to get the names of all eligible voters put in the voters list.
Q.36. ''Save Democracy'' slogan was given by which   of the following political party in 1977
Lok Sabha elections?
(a)  Congress Party (b) Janata Party (b) Telugu Desam Party    (d) Left Front
Q.37. What is the age of a person who can contest election for the Lok Sabha in India?
(a)  25 years                  (b) 30 years                  (c) 35 years                  (d) 40 years
Q.38. In our country, elections are conducted by an independent and powerful body which is known as:                                                                                                                  (a)  Election Commission    (b) Parliament        (c) Judiciary                  (d) Lok Sabha
Q.39. Voter's List is also known as:                                                                              
(a)  Election Number     (b) Voter Identity Card   (c) Electoral Roll      (d) None of these
Q.40. What is the tenure of the Lok Sabha?                                                              
(a)  9 years                    (b) 4 years                    (c) 5 years                    (d) 6 years
Q.41. Which one of the following provisions fails to ensure fair and equal chance to compete to candidates and political parties?                                                                  
(a)  No party or candidate can bribe or threaten voters
(b)  No party or candidate is bound by the model code of conduct
(c)  No party of candidates can use government resources for election campaign
(d)  Nobody can appeal to voters in the name of caste or religion
Ans. (b)
Q.42. Which of the following statements is against the democratic process of elections?
(a)  Parties and candidates should be free to contest elections
(b)  Elections must be held regularly immediately after the term is over
(c)  The right to vote should be given to the selected people only
(d)  Elections should be conducted in a free and fair manner
Q.43. Which state has the largest vidhan sabha in the country?                              
(a)  Maharashtra            (b) U.P. (Uttar Pradesh)    (c) Andhra Pradesh  (d) West Bengal
Q.44. Reserved Constituencies ensures:                                                                        
(a)  Right to equality
(b)  Proper representation to all religious groups
(c)  Proper representation to the weaker sections of society
(d)  None of these
Q.45. Which of the following has the largest Lok Sabha constituency in India?  
(a)  Maharashtra            (b) U.P.                         (c) Himachal Pradesh   (d) Bihar
Q.46. Who has given the slogan 'Garibi Hatao'?                                                        
(a)  Indira Gandhi          (b) Rajiv Gandhi          (c) Sonia Gandhi          (d) Pt. Nehru
Q.47. The number of Lok Sabha constituencies at present is :                                
(a)  541                          (b) 546                          (c) 543                          (d) 540
Q.48. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?                            
(a)  The Chief Justice of India                           (b) The Prime Minister of India
(c)  The President of India                                  (d) The people of India
Q.49. Who is responsible for free and fair elections in India?                                
(a)  Prime Minister                                              (b) President
(c)  Election Commissioner                                 (d) Council of Ministers
Q.50. The number of seats reserved for Scheduled Castes in the Lok Sabha is:  
(a)  59                            (b) 79                            (c) 89                            (d) 99
Q.51. Election Commission of India is appointed by:                                                
(a)  The Parliament                                              (b) The Prime Minister
(c)  The President of India                                  (d) The Supreme Court
Q.52. Election Commissioner in India is appointed for a period of:                        
(a)  4 years                    (b) 7 years                    (c) 6 years                    (d) 5 years
Q.53. What is the Electoral Roll?                                                                                  
(a)  The list of those who are eligible to vote     (b)  The list of those who are contesting election
(c)  The list of those who are not eligible to vote  (d)  None of the above
Q.54. Which of the following does not include election procedure?                        
(a)  Voting          (b) Nomination of candidates      (c)  Booth capturing                 (d) Canvassing
Q.55. When government officers work in election duty, they work under the control of:
(a)  The Government             (b) Election Commission  (c)  The Parliament               (d) The Judiciary
Ans. (b)
Q.56. Which is the new reform introduced in the electroal process by the Election Commission?
(a)  Indelible ink                                                  (b) Electronic voting machine
(c)  Polling booths                                               (d) Voters' list
Q.57. What is the minimum age of voters in India?                                                  
(a)  18 years                  (b) 25 years                  (c) 21 years                  (d) 20 years
Ans. (a)
Q.58. A ballot paper is a sheet of paper which contains the names of the:          
(a)  voters                                                             (b) contesting candidates
(c)  polling officials                                             (d) party workers
Q.59. A set of norms and guidelines to be followed by political parties and candidates during
elections is called:
(a)  Constituency (b) Rigging (c) Code of conduct (d) Turnout
Q.60. The boundaries of a constituency is decided on the basis of:                        
(a)  population               (b) culture                     (c) language                  (d) number of villages
Q.61. Which one of the following help to check the quality of the election process?
(a)  election campaign                                                   (b) reservation of seats for women
(c)  Independent and powerful Election Commission (d) Nomination of candidates
Q.62. Which of the following statements about the reasons for conducting elections is false?
(a)  Elections enable people to judge the performance of the government
(b)  People select the representatatives of their choice in an election
(c)  Elections enable people to evaluate the performance of the judiciary
(d)  People can indicate which policies they prefer
Q.63. The number of 'Reserved Seats' for Scheduled Castes and Tribes in the Lok Sabha is according to :                                                                                                          
 (a)  their population share                                   (b) the decision of the Election Commission
(c)  the decision of all political parties              (d) None of these
Q.64. Which of these is not a feature of Universal Adult Franchise in India?      
(a)  Every citizen should have one vote            (b) Each vote should have equal value
(c)  Every adult citizen has the right to vote
(d)  Every voter should be educated upto primary level

1.(b), 2.(a), 3.(c), 4.(d),5.(d), 6.(c), 7.(b), 8.(d), 9.(b), 10.(b), 11.(a), 12.(b), 13.(d), 14.(d), 15.(b), 16., (b), 17.(d), 18.(c), 19.(d), 20.(c), 21.(d),, 22.(b), 23.(c), 24.(a), 25.(d), 26.(a), 27.(b), 28.(d), 29.(a), 30.(a), 31.(c), 32.(d), 33.(c), 34.(a), 35.(a), 35.(a), 36.(b), 37.(a), 38.(a), 39.(c), 40.(c), 41.(b), 42.(c), 43.(b), 44.(c), 45.(b), 46.(a), 47.(c), 48.(c), 49.(c), 50.(b), 51.(c), 52.(c), 53.(a), 54.(c), 55.(b), 56.(b), 57.(a), 58.(b), 59.(c), 60.(a), 61.(c), 62.(c), 63.(a), 64.(d)