Class X - Summative Assessment - II

Students of Class X, do inform all your friends that there can be a Map question from History - Nationalism in India (Chapter 3). In the sample papers Questions are asked only from Geography, but the curriculum of 2013 has given 2 marks for map question from - Nationalism in India.
That CAN make change in the Paper Pattern, Now it can be
Max. Marks - 90
First  Nine questions (MCQ) of 9 marks
Question no. 10 to 21 of 3 marks
Question no 22 to 29 of 5 marks
Map Question of 5 marks

Class X - The making of a Global World

PPT on - The Making of a Global world
Chapter no. 4, Class X -History
http://www.slideshare.net/viduvinodkumar/the-making-of-a-global-world-17156161

Newly discovered comet to shine brightest this weekend

The brightest comet in several years, Comet Panstarrs, will be visible with naked eyes in the evening twilight. It will pass by sun at a distance of 0.3 Astronomical Unit today, its closest approach.
On the evening of March 12, the slender sliver of a crescent moon, just one day past new, will be positioned less than 5 degrees to the right of the comet, making for perhaps a very picturesque scene
http://www.dnaindia.com/scitech/report_newly-discovered-comet-to-shine-brightest-this-weekend_1809468

Class IX - Summative Assessment II

Social Science Class IX
Summative Assessment II
General Instructions

1.     The question paper has 31 questions in all. All questions are compulsory. 
2.     Marks are indicated against each question. 
3.     This question paper consists of FOUR SECTIONS. Sections A of the question paper contains Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) from serial number 1 to 10 of 1 mark each. These Ten questions of Section A are to be answered on a separate sheet provided. This part has to be completed in first 30 minutes only and the answer sheet must be handed over to the invigilator before starting Section B. 
4.     In Section B, C and D of the question paper, there are Twenty One questions from serial no. 11 to 31 which are to be attempted in 2 hours and 30 minutes. This part should be attempted only after the stipulated time given for Section A. 
5.     Questions from serial number 11 to 22 are 3 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 80 words each. 
6.     Questions from serial number 23 to 30 are 5 marks questions. Answers of these questions should not exceed 120 words each. 
7.     Question number 31 is a map question of 4 marks from Geography only. After completion, attach the map inside your answer book.  
PART - I
(Questions from Serial Nos. 1-10 carry 1 mark each.)
(Answer Q. No. 1, 2 from any one of the following groups A, B and C.)

GROUP-A

1.     In 1910, in Bastar mango boughs, a lump of earth, chillies and arrows began circulating between villages. What was its significance?                     [1]
    (A) It signified coming of natural calamities
    (B) These were actually messages inviting villagers to rebel against the British
    (C) Both of these
    (D) None of these

2.     Which of the following trees were cut down on large scale to build ships, railways, etc.?         [1]
    (A) Mango and Shisham     (B) Shisham and Jamun    (C) Teak and Sal     (D) Herbs and Shrubs

GROUP-B

1.     What happened to poor pastoralists as a result of Forest Laws?          [1]
    (A) They lost their cattle and sheep     (B) They eventually became labourers
    (C) They became landlords     (D) Both (A) and (B)

2.     Which one of the following pastoral communities belongs to Africa?      [1]
    (A) Dhangars     (B) Bhotiyas     (C) Banjaras     (D) Maasais

GROUP-C

1.     In __________ there was a dramatic expansion of wheat production in the USA.     [1]
    (A) late 19th century     (B) late 20th century    (C) early 18th century     (D) late 16th century

2.     The dramatic expansion of cultivation in USA was made possible by which factor?     [1]
    (A) Land     (B) Labour     (C) Technology     (D) None of these

3.     The Arabian Sea branch of the monsoons reaches Mumbai approximately on which date?     [1]
    (A) 10th June     (B) 12th June     (C) 15th June     (D) 20th June18

4.     The first complete Census in India was taken in the year __________.     [1]
    (A) 1872     (B) 1875     (C) 1881     (D) 1890

5.     Which of the following statements is incorrect?     [1]
    (A) People’s participation in election is measured by voter’s turnout
    (B) In India the poor, illiterate persons vote in larger proportion as compared to the rich and privileged sections
    (C) Common people in India attach a lot of importance to elections
    (D) None of these

6.     The term ‘rigging’ is associated with     [1]
    (A) Elections     (B) First day in a college    (C) Cricket     (D) Social reform

7.     Who was responsible for the ethnic massacre in Kosovo?     [1]
    (A) Sadaam Hussain     (B) Batisha Hoxha    (C) President Milosevic     (D) None of these

8.     Which of the following is not one of the reasons for poverty in India?     [1]
    (A) Landlessness     (B) Illiteracy     (C) Size of families     (D) Government

9.     A famine is characterised by which of the following?     [1]
    (A) Widespread deaths     (B) Starvation     (C) Epidemics     (D) All of these

10.     Which of the following is not one of the dimensions of food security?
    (A) Availability of food     (B) Accessibility     (C) Affordability     (D) Export of grains

PART- II

(Questions from Serial Nos. 11-22 carry 3 marks each.)

11.     ‘Television coverage changed cricket’. Explain.     [3]
OR
    Winston Churchill describes Mahatma Gandhi as a ‘seditious Middle Temple Lawyer’ now ‘posing as a half naked fakir.’ What provoked such a comment and what does it tell you about the symbolic strength of Mahatma Gandhi’s dress?                     [3]

12.     Do you think the game of cricket was responsible for victory of England in the Napoleonic wars? Justify your statement.                         [3]
OR
    Why did the popularity of Khadi as an alternative material for clothing dwindle in the long run?     [3]

13.     Explain any three factors affecting climate.         [3]

14.     Mention the characteristic features of Montane forests.     [3]

15.     Mention the names of characteristic trees of all the five types of natural vegetation in India.         [3]

16.     Is the large population of India a boon or a bane? Justify your answer by giving three arguments.     [3]

17.     Explain any four trends of popular participation in election in India.     [3]

18.     Which is the highest institution of parliamentary democracy in India? Why do you think so?         [3]

19.     Explain the Right against exploitation.     [4]

20.     What is vulnerability? Which are vulnerable groups in Indian society?     [3]

21.     Mention two advantages and one disadvantage of Public Distribution System.         [3]

22.     Describe the main shortcomings of Public Distribution System in India.     [3]

PART - III

(Questions from Serial Nos. 23-30 carry 5 marks each.)

23.     Describe the Dutch scientific forestry? How was it different from Indian scientific foresty?     [5]
                                                                            Or
          Mention any four pastoral communities of India. Describe the life cycle of any one of them.         [5]
                                                                            Or
         Differentiate between the 16th century and 18th century enclosure movements in England.         [5]

24.     Describe the development in cricket in India before independence.     [5]
OR
         Describe how the Swadeshi Movement was linked to politics of clothing.     [5]

25.    Discuss the factors which affects the Growth of Population .                        [5]
26.     Bring out the main features of the tropical deciduous forests in India.     [5]

27.     Examine the need for political institutions in a democracy.     [5]

28.     Mention the six Fundamental Rights. Describe any  one of them.     [5]

29.     Explain any  four rural development programmes targeted at removing poverty.         [5]

30.     Write a note on the role of cooperatives in providing food and related items.     [5]

PART - IV

(Question from Serial No. 31 is a Map Question of 4 marks from Geography only.)

(31.1).     Two features 1 and 2 are marked on the given outline political map of India. Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map.                   [2]
    (1) It is a meteorological station of Himalayan region
    (2) It is a National Park

(31.2)     Locate and label the following on the given outline political map of India.     [2]
    (A) Meteorological station of West Bengal.
    (B) Area of Montane forest.

Note :- The following questions are for  the visually impaired candidates only in lieu of Question No. 31.  [4]

(31.1)     Name the state where National Park of Kanha Kisli is located.

(31.2)     Name the bird sanctuary of Karnataka.

(31.3)     Name the state with highest population density.

(31.4)     Name a meteorological station of West Bengal.

Class X - Summative Assessment II

SOCIAL SCIENCE
Summative Assessment II - Class X
General Instructions
1.     The question paper has 31 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
2.     Marks are indicated against each question.
3.     This question paper consists of FOUR SECTIONS. Sections A of the question paper contains Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) from serial number 1 to 10 of 1 mark each. These Ten questions of Section A are to be answered on a separate sheet provided. This part has to be completed in first 30 minutes only and the answer sheet must be handed over to the invigilator before starting Section B.
4.     In Section B, C and D of the question paper, there are Twenty One questions from serial no. 11 to 31 which are to be attempted in 2 hours and 30 minutes. This part should be attempted only after the stipulated time given for Section A.
5.     Questions from serial number 11 to 22 are 3 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
6.     Questions from serial number 23 to 30 are 5 marks questions. Answers of these questions should not exceed 120 words each.
7.     Question number 31 is a map question of 4 marks from Geography only. After completion, attach the map inside your answer book.
SECTION-A
(Question  numbers  1  to  10  carry  1 mark  each)

1.     During  the middle  of  the  19th  century, which was  the  only  state  of  Italy  to  be  ruled by  an  Italian  princely  house? [1]
    (a) Tuscany     (b) Parma     (c) Lombardy     (d) Sardinia-Piedmout
Or
    In  __________  Japan  occupied  Vietnam  as  part  of  its  imperial  drive  to  control Southeast Asia. [1]
    (a) 1935 (b) 1940 (c) 1950 (d) 1954

2.     The  seacoast  of  Dandi  is  related  to  which  national movement? [1]
    (a) Non-Cooperation  Movement     (b) Civil  Disobedience  Movement
    (c) Quit  India  Movement     (d) None  of  these

3.     Where  are  India’s  bauxite  deposits mainly  found?   [1]
    (a) Amarkantak  plateau         (b) Maikal  hills
    (c) Bilaspur  - Katni  plateau     (d) All  of  these

4.     Which  country  is  the  largest  producer  and  the  largest  consumer  of  steel? [1]
    (a) India     (b) China     (c) Britain     (d) Japan

5.     Which  roads  received  special  impetus  under  the  Pradhan  Mantri  Grameen  Sadak Yojana? [1]
    (a) State  Highways     (b) District Roads    (c) National  Highways     (d) Rural Roads

6.    Which  of  the  following movements  is  a  long  term movement  involving more  than  one issue? [1]
    (a) Narmada  Bachao Andolan     (b) Environment  movement
    (c) Women’s  movement         (d) Both  (b)  and  (c)

7.     Bahujan  Samaj  Party  (BSP)  draws  inspiration  from  the  ideas  and  teachings  of which of  the  following  leaders? [1]
    (a) Sahu Maharaj     (b) Mahatma  Phule     (c) B.R. Ambedkar     (d) All  of  these

8.    A  ________  is  a  difficulty  that  carries within  it  an  opportunity  for  progress.  [1]
    (a) Reform     (b) Challenge     (c) System     (d) Democracy

9.     Poor  households  receive  credit  from  ______________. [1]
    (a) Formal  sources     (b) Informal  sources     (c) Both  of  these     (d) None  of  these

10.     Which  day  is  observed  as  the National  Consumers’ Day? [1]
    (a) 20th  December     (b) 24th  December     (c) 20th August     (d) 24th  September

SECTION-B
(Question  numbers  11  to  22  carry  3 marks  each.)

11.     Describe  the  role  of Giuseppe Mazzini  and Giuseppe Garibaldi  in  Italian  unification.     [3]
Or
    Who  were  Trung  sisters?  How  did  they  fight  against  Chinese  imperialism?         [3]
12.    Prove, giving evidences, that Habsburg empire was a patch work of many regions and peoples.
                                                                              Or
    Why did French policy makers wanted to educate the people of Vietnam ? Explain.   

13.     Why did  the Non-Cooperation Movement gradually slow down  in  the cities and  towns? Give  three  reasons.                     [3]

14.     Describe  the  distribution  of  coal  in  India.                 [3]

15.     Where  should  the  steel  plants  be  ideally  located? Mention  three  factors.         [3]

16.    What do you mean by Balance of Trade ? Analyse India’s Foreign trade in the last 15 years.[3]

17.     Compare  and  differentiate  between  the movement  in Nepal  and Bolivia’s Water War.    [3]

18.     Do  you  think  a  democratic  government  ensures  dignity  and  freedom  of  the  citizens? Give  three  reasons  to  justify  your  answer.                 [3]

19.     What  are  the  various  challenges  to  democracy? Discuss  any  three  of  them.         [3]

20.    Decribe the functioning of a Bank. What is the importance of Cash Reserve Ratio ?        [3]

21.     “Globalisation has made  the  rich,  richer and  the poor, poorer.” Explain  this  statement.      [3]

22.     Describe  any  three  rights  of  consumers.                 [3]


SECTION-C
(Question  numbers  23  to  30  carry  5 marks  each.)

23.     What  did  liberal  nationalism  stand  for?  Describe  essential  features  of  liberal nationalism. [5]
Or
    ‘The Ho Chi Minh Trail  symbolises  how  the Vietnamese  used  their  limited  resources to  great  advantage.’  Comment.                     [5]

24.     Describe the idea of Satyagraha as defined by Gandhiji. Explain his initial satyagraha in India.  [5]

25.     Describe the contribution of Chemical Industry in India economy. Differentiate between organic and inorganic chemical industries.
26.    “Trade, Transport and Communication are complementry to each other.” Explain the statement with examples.                    [5]

27.     “It is said that Democracy takes such a long time period im making decisions that many a times the Decision looses its importance.” Is it true, Explain with examples.
   
28.    ‘The problem of bad politics can be solved by more and better politics.’ Elaborate  this stateme

29.    Suppose you wish  to  take  a  loan  for purchasing  a house. Which  source of  credit will you  approach? Why?                     [5]

30.     What steps will you suggest for a Fair Globalisation ?            [5]

SECTION-D

(Question  number  31  is  a map  question  of  4 marks  from  Geography.)

31.     Locate and  label  the  following  stations with appropriate names on  the given map.    [4]
    (i) Tarapur  nuclear  power  station
    (ii) Ludhiana  -  woollen  textile  centre
    (iii) Jawaharlal Nehru  -  seaport
    (iv) Bhilai steel plant

Class IX - Summative Assessment II

SOCIAL SCIENCE-IX  (TERM-II)
MODEL TEST PAPER 
Summative Assessment - 2 (Term – II)
General Instructions :
Time Allowed  :  3  hours  Maximum Marks  :  90
General Instructions

1.     The question paper has 31 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
2.     Marks are indicated against each question.
3.     This question paper consists of FOUR SECTIONS. Sections A of the question paper contains Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) from serial number 1 to 10 of 1 mark each. These Ten questions of Section A are to be answered on a separate sheet provided. This part has to be completed in first 30 minutes only and the answer sheet must be handed over to the invigilator before starting Section B.
4.     In Section B, C and D of the question paper, there are Twenty One questions from serial no. 11 to 31 which are to be attempted in 2 hours and 30 minutes. This part should be attempted only after the stipulated time given for Section A.
5.     Questions from serial number 11 to 22 are 3 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
6.     Questions from serial number 23 to 30 are 5 marks questions. Answers of these questions should not exceed 120 words each.
7.     Question number 31 is a map question of 4 marks from Geography only. After completion, attach the map inside your answer book.
PART - I

(Questions from Serial Nos. 1-10 carry 1 mark each.)
(Answer Q. No. 1, 2  from any one of the following groups A, B and C.)

GROUP-A

1.     The flowers of which trees can be eaten or used to make alcohol and seeds can be used to make oil? [1]
    (A) Mahua     (B) Mango     (C) Banyan     (D) Tamarind

2.     Who were the colonial power in Indonesia?     [1]
    (A) British     (B) Dutch     (C) French     (D) Portuguese

GROUP-B

1.     Which of the following nomadic communities belonged to the Madras Presidency?         [1]
    (A) Korava     (B) Karacha     (C) Yerukula     (D) All of these

2.     Pastoralists were found in the     [1]
    (A) Plateaus     (B) Plains     (C) Deserts     (D) All the above

GROUP-C

1.     In the 19th century the two major commercial crops India came to produce for the world market were which of these?                         [1]
    (A) Indigo & opium     (B) Opium & cotton     (C) Cotton & indigo     (D) None of these

2.     What was the result of the opium war?     [1]
    (A) Britain stopped the sale of opium
    (B) Britain agreed with China to sell only limited quantity
    (C) Britain declared war
    (D) None of the above

3.     The winter rainfall known as ‘Mahawat’ is very important for the cultivation of which crops? [1]
    (A) Kharif crops     (B) Rabi crops     (C) Zaid crops     (D) All of these

4.     According to the Census 2001, a ‘literate’ person is one who     [1]
    (A) can read and write his/her name
    (B) can read and write any language
    (C) is 7 years old and can read and write any language with understanding14
    (D) knows the 3 ‘R’s (reading, writing, arithmetic)

5.     Which of these is not a kind of the district and local level bodies?     [1]
    (A) Panchayats     (B) Municipalities     (C) Corporations     (D) Lok Sabha

6.     Which among the following is incorrect?     [1]
    (A) Election Commission conducts all elections for the Parliament and Assemblies
    (B) It directs and controls the preparation of electoral rolls
    (C) It can fix the election dates
    (D) It scrutinises the nomination papers

7.     When was the National Human Rights Commission set up?     [1]
    (A) 1998     (B) 1996     (C) 1993     (D) 2001

8.     Which of the following pairs is incorrect?     [1]
    (A) NREGA – 2005     (B) NFWP – 2004     (C) REGP – 1995     (D) PMGY – 1998

9.     What is MSP?         [1]
    (A) Minimum support price     (B) Maximum support price
    (C) Moderate support price     (D) None of these

10.     Which ministry announces the MSP ?
    (A) Ministry of Rural Development     (B) Ministry of Human Resource
    (C) Ministry of Agriculture     (D) Ministry of Forests and Environment

PART - II

(Questions from Serial Nos. 11-22 carry 3 marks each.)

11.     Describe the views of Mahatma Gandhi regarding games like cricket and hockey. Do you agree with his views? Why? Why not?                          [3]
OR
    What was the view of Rabindranath Tagore regarding ‘national dress’?     [3]

12.     ‘The social superiority of amateurs was built into the customs of cricket.’ How?     [3]
OR
    ‘Mahatma Gandhi’s experiments with clothing sum up the changing attitude to dress in the Indian subcontinent.’ Explain.                         [3]

13.     Which part of India does experience the highest diurnal range of temperature and why?     [3]

14.     Name different types of vegetation found in India and describe the vegetation of high altitudes.     [3]

15.     Describe the main features of natural vegetation in India.     [3]

16.     Mention three advantages of having a healthy population?     [3]

17.     Are the elections too expensive for our country? Should they be discontinued? Describe your view giving proper arguments.                         [3]

18.     Who is more powerful — the President or the Prime Minister of India? Justify your answer by giving three arguments.                         [3]

19.     Mention the six freedoms available to an Indian citizen under the Right to Freedom.         [3]

20.     Bring out any three features of global poverty trends.     [3]

21.     Mention three limitations in the functioning of Public Distribution System.     [3]

22.     What has our government done to provide food security to the poor? Discuss any two schemes launched by the government.                         [3]

PART - III

(Questions from Serial Nos. 23-30 carry 5 marks each.)
23.     Bring out the similarities and dissimilarities between colonial management of the forests in India and in Java.                         [5]
                                                                   Or
Explain the reasons for cyclic movement of the pastoral communities. Illustrate one example.     [5]
                                                                    Or
Mention the consequences of the Enclosure Movement on the agricultural labourers. How did they cope up with it?                         [5]

24.     Discuss the uniqueness of Test Cricket in relation to other team games. Give reasons for this uniqueness.[5]
OR
    Describe how Mahatma Gandhi used his dress code as a political statement.         [5]
25.     Differentiate between the Cold and Hot weather season.                                 [5]

26.     Explain three factors responsible for the diversification of flora.     [5]

27.     How does the Parliament exercise political authority on behalf of the people? Describe four ways in which it does so.                         [5]

28.     ‘Rights are guarantees which can be used when things go wrong.’ Discuss.                 [5]

29.     (A) What do you understand by human poverty?                     [2]

    (B) Who constitute the poorest of the poor?                     [2]


30.     (A) What happens to the supply of food when there is a disaster or a calamity?     [2]

    (B) How is food security ensured in India?     [2]

PART - IV

(Question from Serial No. 31 is a Map Question of 4 marks from Geography only.)

(31.1)     Two features 1 and 2 are marked on the given outline political map of India. Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map.     [2]
    (1) Only meteorological station in a North-East state.
    (2) Bird sanctuary in south India.
   
(31.2).    Locate and label the following on the given outline political map of India.                 [2]
    (i) Capital of Maharashtra that has a meteorological station.
    (ii) Region of tropical deciduous forests in India.

Note:- The following question is for  the visually impaired candidates only in lieu of Question no.31. [4]

(31.1)     Name the state which has highest sex-ratio.

(31.2)     How much rainfall is required for the development and growth of tropical evergreen forests.

(31.3)     Name the meteorological station located in the Himalayan region.

(31.4)     Name a bird sanctuary in South India.

Class X - Summative Assessment II

SOCIAL SCIENCE-X  (TERM-II)
MODEL TEST PAPER 
Time Allowed  :  3  hours  Maximum Marks  :  90
General Instructions

1.     The question paper has 31 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
2.     Marks are indicated against each question.
3.     This question paper consists of FOUR SECTIONS. Sections A of the question paper contains Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) from serial number 1 to 10 of 1 mark each. These Ten questions of Section A are to be answered on a separate sheet provided. This part has to be completed in first 30 minutes only and the answer sheet must be handed over to the invigilator before starting Section B.
4.     In Section B, C and D of the question paper, there are Twenty One questions from serial no. 11 to 31 which are to be attempted in 2 hours and 30 minutes. This part should be attempted only after the stipulated time given for Section A.
5.     Questions from serial number 11 to 22 are 3 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
6.     Questions from serial number 23 to 30 are 5 marks questions. Answers of these questions should not exceed 120 words each.
7.     Question number 31 is a map question of 4 marks from Geography only. After completion, attach the map inside your answer book. 
SECTION-A
(Question  numbers  1  to  10  carry  1 mark  each)

1.     What was  the  nature  of  conservative  regimes  set  up  in  Europe  in  1815?         [1]
    (a) Democratic     (b) Autocratic     (c) Liberal     (d) None  of  these
Or
    What was  the  result  of  the  ‘Rat Hunt’? [1]
    (a) Bubonic  plague  was  stopped
    (b) Bubonic  plague  could  not  be  prevented
    (c) The  French were  forced  to  scrap  the  bounty  programme
    (d) Both  (b)  and  (c)

2.     At  which  session  of  the  Congress, Mahatma  Gandhi  convinced  other  leaders  of  the need  to  start  a  Non-Cooperation  movement  in  support  of  Khilafat  as  well  as  for Swaraj ?         [1]
    (a) Calcutta  Session  September  1920     (b) Nagpur  Session,  December  1920
    (c) Madras  Session  1927     (d) None  of  these

3.     The  Kudermukh mines in Karnataka  are  famous  for  which mineral ?             [1]
    (a) Bauxite     (b) Iron  ore     (c) Copper     (d) Manganese

4.     Which  industry  contributes  around  4  per  cent  to GDP ?             [1]
    (a) Textile  industry         (b) Iron  and  steel  industry
    (c) Cement  industry         (d) Chemical  industry

5.     Which of the following is not a part of Mass Communication ?            [1]
    (a) DoorDarshan     (b) All India Radio      (c) Postal Network     (d) Cinema

6.     What  has  been  the  influence  of  pressure  groups  and movements  on  democracy?     [1]
    (a) These  have  deepened  democracy     (b) These  have  prevented  democracy
    (c) These  have  opposed  democracy     (d) None  of  these

7.     Which  of  the  following  are  issue-specific  movements ?              [1]
    (a) Nepalese  movement  for  democracy     (b) Narmada  Bachao Andolan
    (c) Both  of  these         (d) None  of  these

8.     “The  sickle-and-hammer”  is  the  symbol  of  which  political  party?             [1]
    (a) CPI     (b) CPI  (M)     (c) BSP     (d) NCP

9. __________  is  the  process  of  rapid  integration  or  interconnection  between  countries.    [1]
    (a) Liberalisation     (b) Globalisation     (c) Export     (d) None  of  these

10.     Which  is  the  certification  maintained  for  standardisation  of  jewellery?             [1]
    (a) ISI Mark     (b) Eco Mark     (c) Hallmark     (d) ISO Mark

SECTION-B
(Question  numbers  11  to  22  carry  3 marks  each.)

11.     Describe  the main  features  and  aspects  of  the  Balkan  crisis.             [3]
Or
    What  does  the  1903  plague  crisis  explain  about  the  French  colonial  attitude  towards questions  of  health  and  hygiene?                     [3]

12.     Explain  the  reasons why Mahatma Gandhi decided to support Khilafat Movement.        [3]
13.     Explain reasons why many of the Groups of Muslim Community have not shown an active interest in the Civil Disobedience Movement.                [3]               

14.     India  is  called  the  ‘wind  super  power’  in  the  world.  Justify  this  statement.         [3]

15.     In which area most of the Jute Textile industry are found ? Why ?             [3]

16.     When  and  where  was  the  first  cement  plant  set  up  in  India?  Where  would  it  be economically  viable  to  set  up  the  cement manufacturing  units?             [3]

17.     What  is  the  difference  between  a  pressure  group  and  a  political  party?             [3]

18.     ‘Democratic  governments  do  not  have  a  very  good  record  when  it  comes  to  sharing information  with  citizens.’  Comment  and  explain.                 [3]

19.     Compare  the  records  of  democracy  and  dictatorship  on  the  touchstone  of  economic development.                         [3]

20.    Which bank is often termed as the Central Bank of India, how it controls other banks ?    [3]    

21.     Discuss  the  effect  of  globalisation  on  Indian  economy.             [3]

22.     Discuss  the  progress  of  consumer movement  in  India.             [3]

SECTION-C

(Question  numbers  23  to  30  carry  5 marks  each.)

23.     Write  short  notes  on  :                     [5]
    (a) The  Greek  war  of  independence
    (b) The  role  of  women  in  nationalist  struggles.
Or
    Should  colonies  be  developed? Do  you  agree with  the  view  of  Paul Bernard?  Justify your  answer. [4]

24.     Discuss  the  significance  of  the Non-Cooperation Movement. Why was  the movement suddenly  withdrawn?                     [5]

25.    Which industries are mainly responsible for creating Water pollution ? Suggest three remedial measures to control water pollution.                  [5]           
26.     Describe  the importance of Pipeline transportation. Name  important  networks  of  pipeline  transportation  in  the  country.                     [5]

27.     Describe  recent  efforts  and  suggestions in  our  country  to  reform  political parties.     [5]

28.    Give reasons to prove that Democracy is a better form of Government than other forms.    [5]   

29.     Define the role of credit in development. Which sector of loan is found mostly in rural areas and why?[5]
30.    How does a MNC controls production in various countries ?             [5]

SECTION-D

(Question  number  31 is  a map  question  of  4 marks  from  Geography.)

31.     (a) Two features A and B are marked on  the given outline map of India. Identify these features with  the  help  of  the  following  information  and write  their  correct  names  on the  lines marked  in  the map. [2]
    (A) Mica  mine    (B) Silk  Textile  Centre   

    (b) Locate  and  label  the  following  items  on  the  same map  with  appropriate  symbols. [2]
    (i) Korba  thermal  power  plant
    (ii) Kanpur  textile  centre
   
   

Class IX - Drainage

Class IX - Drainage
http://www.slideshare.net/viduvinodkumar/drainange

Class IX - Summattive Assessment II

SOCIAL SCIENCE-IX  (TERM-II)
MODEL TEST PAPER 
Summative Assessment - 2 (Term – II)
General Instructions :
Time Allowed  :  3  hours  Maximum Marks  :  90
General Instructions

1.     The question paper has 31 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
2.     Marks are indicated against each question.
3.     This question paper consists of FOUR SECTIONS. Sections A of the question paper contains Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) from serial number 1 to 10 of 1 mark each. These Ten questions of Section A are to be answered on a separate sheet provided. This part has to be completed in first 30 minutes only and the answer sheet must be handed over to the invigilator before starting Section B.
4.     In Section B, C and D of the question paper, there are Twenty One questions from serial no. 11 to 31 which are to be attempted in 2 hours and 30 minutes. This part should be attempted only after the stipulated time given for Section A.
5.     Questions from serial number 11 to 22 are 3 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
6.     Questions from serial number 23 to 30 are 5 marks questions. Answers of these questions should not exceed 120 words each.
7.     Question number 31 is a map question of 4 marks from Geography only. After completion, attach the map inside your answer book. 
PART - I

(Questions from Serial No. 1-10 carry 1 mark each.)
(Answer Q. No. 1, 2  from any one of the following groups A, B and C.)

GROUP-A

1.     Where was the Imperial Forest Research Institute set up in 1906?     [1]
    (a) Delhi     (b) Dehradun     (c) Mussoorie     (d) Haridwar

2.     What were the restrictions put on by the Dutch colonialists regarding access to forests in Java?     [1]
    (a) Villagers were not allowed to graze cattle in young strands
    (b) They were not allowed to transport wood without a permit
    (c) They were not allowed to travel on forest roads with horsecarts or cattle
    (d) All of these

GROUP-B

1.     Enclosures filled the pockets of __________.     [1]
    (a) Workers     (b) Landlords     (c) Peasants     (d) All of these

2.     Which country attained independence in 1961 and united with Zanzibar to form Tanzania in 1964?     [1]
    (a) Zimbabwe     (b) Tanganyika     (c) Zanzibar     (d) South Africa

GROUP-C

1.     Why were the Manchu rulers of China initially opposed to allow the entry of foreign goods?      [1]
    (a) They were suspicious of all foreign merchants
    (b) They feared that the merchants would meddle in local politics and disrupt their authority.
    (c) They feared disruption of their normal social and economic life.
    (d) All of these

2.     When were the opium wars fought?     [1]
    (a) (1837-42)     (b) (1830-32)     (c) (1937-42)     (d) (1950-54)

3.     Which one of the following weather phenomen causes rainfall during winters in north- western part of India.                         [1]
    (a) Cyclonic depression         (b) Retreating monsoon
    (c) Western disturbances     (d) South-west monsoon

4.     A large proportion of children in a population is a result of     [1]
    (a) high birth rates     (b) high life expectancies (c) high death rates     (d) more married couple

5.     Which of the following statements is incorrect?     [1]
    (a) Every person who wishes to contest an election has to fill a ‘nomination form.’
    (b) He has to give some money as ‘security deposit.’
    (c) He has to make a legal declaration giving details pending against himself
    (d) None of these

6.     Which of these is not a good reason to say that Indian elections are democratic?     [1]
    (a) India has the largest number of voters in the world
    (b) Election Commission is very powerful
    (c) Everyone above the age of 18 years has a right to vote
    (d) The losing parties accept the electoral verdict

7.     Which of the following rights is available under the Indian Constitution?     [1]
    (a) Right to work         (b) Right to adequate livelihood
    (c) Right to protect one’s culture     (d) Right to privacy

8.    Nowadays poverty is looked through which of the following social indicators?     [1]
    (a) Illiteracy level        (b) Lack of general resistance due to malnutrition
    (c) Lack of access to health care     (d) All of these

9.     Buffer stock is the stock of foodgrains namely     [1]
    (a) Wheat and rice     (b) Wheat and sugar    (c) Mustard oil and rice    (d) Rice and maize

10.     In which state of India, has the Academy of Development Science (ADS) facilitated a network of NGOs for setting up grain banks?                         [1]
    (a) Bihar     (b) Uttar Pradesh     (c) Uttarakhand     (d) Maharashtra

PART – II

(Questions from Serial Nos. 11-22 carry 3 marks each.)

11.     Explain how was cricket mixed with race and religion in initial years in India.     [3]
OR
    What changes in women’s clothing came about as a result of the two world wars?     [3]

12.     ‘Cricket in colonial India was organised on the principle of race and religion.’ Justify the statement.     [3]
OR
    Do you think western clothes were a sign of modernity and progress? Justify your answer by giving three arguments.                         [3]

13.     What is coriolis force? How does it affect the climate?      [3]

14.     Describe the interrelationship between the flora and fauna.     [3]

15.     Describe the wildlife of India.     [3]

16.     Describe India’s population distribution by density.     [3]

17.     Suggest four ways to hold free and fair elections in India.     [3]

18.     Mention the discretionary powers of the President of India.     [3]

19.     “Every citizen in India, from the Prime Minister to a small farmer in a remote village, is subjected to the same laws.” Comment.                          [3]

20.     Give an account of inter-state disparities in India.     [3]

21.     How is food security affected during a calamity?     [3]

22.     Describe the current status of Public Distribution System.     [3]

PART - III

(Questions from Serial Nos. 23-30 carry 5 marks each.)

23.     Who was Dietrich Brandis? Describe his contribution to forest management in colonial India.     [5]
                                                                               Or
     How did the pastoralists cope with changes brought about in colonial period?         [5]
                                                                               Or
    What lessons can we draw from the conversion of the countryside in the USA from a Bread Basket to a Dust Bowl ?                                                                                                                              [5]  


24.     Explain the historical reasons behind oddities of cricket.     [5]
OR
    Explain the three different ways in which Indians reacted to western-style clothing.     [5]

25.    Discuss the mechanism of monsoons.                                                                                           [5]

26.     What factors are responsible for the distribution of plants and animals in India ?    [5]

27.     Differentate between the powers and functions of the political executive and the permanent executive. [5]

28.     Mention the rights recognised by the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights.

29.     Do you think the present methodology of poverty estimation is appropriate? Suggest another methodology of poverty estimation.                         [5]

30.     ‘A large section of people in India are still without adequate food.’ Explain.             [5]

PART - IV

(Question from Serial No. 31 is a Map Question of 4 marks from Geography only.)

(31.1).     Two  features 1 and 2 are marked on the given outline map of India. Identify these features with the help of given information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map.             [2]
    (1) Meteorological station of Rajasthan.     (2) National Park in Rajasthan.

(31.2)     Locate and label the following on the given outline political map of India.     [2]
    (a) Nagpur meteorological station.     (b) The state which has highest sex-ratio in India

Note  :– The following questions are for  the visually impaired candidates only in lieu of Question No. 31. [4]

(31.1)     Name the state which is most sparsely populated.

(31.2)     Name the areas where Montane forests are found.

(31.3)     Name the state where Shivpuri National Park is located.

(31.4)     Name a national park in Rajasthan.