Class IX - PSA -13

Supporting Material 2013, Problem Solving Assessment Class IX
http://www.edudel.nic.in/welcome_folder/support_material_12_13/2012_13/SUPPORT_MATERIAL_OF_PSA_FOR_CLASS_IX.pdf
The board has decided to replace one of the four formative assessments (FA) with this test (PSA) for Classes IX and XI.
The first test will be conducted on January-February 2013 for Class IX. The test will involve questions to test a student’s problem-solving ability.
It will be compulsory for all students of Classes IX and carry 90 marks. There will be 60 items of MCQ type.

It will assess the following areas:-
    Quantitative Reasoning (found in mathematics, science and technology)
    Qualitative Reasoning (found in humanities, arts and social sciences)
    Language Conventions

There is no specific syllabus for Problem Solving Assessment (CBSE-PSA).
The items will incorporate aspects of 21 Century Skills (Creative Thinking, Decision Making, Critical   Thinking, Problem Solving, and Communication) that leads to success at Secondary Stage. They should be able to assess student’s ability to process, interpret and use information rather than assess student’s prior subject matter knowledge.
The Assessment will contain items that will assess written expression, including grammar and usage, vocabulary in context and passage-completion.
The test items will be so designed that they will also help in improving scores within the core school subjects as the Problem Solving Assessment test items are designed to improve generic and higher order thinking skills.
The items will be able to assess students ability. The test items will be so designed that they will also help in improving scores within the core school subjects as the Problem Solving Assessment test items are designed to improve the generic skills.

Class X - Lifelines of National Economy

PPT on -  Lifelines of National Economy
http://www.slideshare.net/viduvinodkumar/lifelines-of-national-economy-15960595

Class X - Lifelines of National Economy

NCERT TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS

Q.1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below :

(i) Which of the following is the most important modes of transportation in India?

(a) Pipelines (b) Railways (c) Roadways (d) Airways

Ans. (a)

(ii) Which one of the following terms is used to describe trade between two or more

countries?

(a) Internal trade (b) International trade (c) External trade (d) Local trade

Ans. (b)

(iii) Which two of the following extreme locations are connected by the East-West Corridor?

(a) Mumbai and Nagpur (b) Silchar and Porbandar

(c) Mumbai and Kolkata (d) Nagpur and Siliguri

Ans. (b)

(iv) Which one of the following ports is the deepest land-locked and well-protected port along the east coast?

(a) Chennai (b) Paradip (c) Tuticorin (d) Visakhapatnam

Ans. (d)

(v) Which mode of transportation reduces trans-shipment losses and delays?

(a) Railways (b) Roadways (c) Pipeline (d) Waterways

Ans. (c)

(vi) Which one of the following states is not connected with the H.V.J. pipeline?

(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Maharashtra (c) Gujarat (d) Uttar Pradesh

Ans. (b)

Q.2. What is the significance (importance) of : (a) National Highways and (b) Border Roads?

Ans. (a) The National Highways are the primary road systems of our country. They link extreme parts of the country and provide connectivity between the different states of India. They have been planned to meet the requirement of fast movement of traffic in the country. A number of major National Highways run in north-south and east-west directions. They connect most of the important towns and cities of the country. The National Highways are laid and maintained by the Central Public Works Department (CPWD).

(b) The Border Roads are vital road links along the frontiers of our country. These roads are of strategic importance. They have improved accessibility in areas of difficult terrain mainly in the northern and notheastern border areas. They have played a major role in the economic development of these areas. The Border Roads Organisation, a government of India undertaking, was established in 1960 for the purpose of building the border roads. The organisation is in charge of construction and maintenance of these road.

Q.3. Mention four merits of road transportation with reference to India.

Ans. Roadways are the most important means of transportation in India. India has one of the largest networks of roadways in the world, aggregating to about 2.3 million km at present. Road transport has preceded railways and still have an edge over it in view of the ease with which it can be built and maintained. Other means of transport like pipelines have limited application and waterways are localised in rivers and water bodies while airways are costly and out of reach of common people.

Road transport is more useful than railways on account of its following merits :

(a) Construction and maintainence cost of roads is much lower than that of railways.

(b) Roads can traverse comparatively more dissected and undulating topography. They can negotiate higher gradients of slopes and can traverse mountainous regions such as the Himalayas. They can reach remote villages and hilly regions where railway tracks cannot be constructed.

(c) Roads provided door to door service, thus the cost of loading and unloading is much lower.

(d) Road transport is also used as a feeder to other modes of transport, for example, they provide a link between railway stations, airports and ports. They link the village, towns and cities to the railway stations. They provide linkage between ports and markets and trading centres.

Q.4. Where and why is rail transport the most convenient means of transportation?

Ans. Railways can transport larger number of goods and passengers over long distances at economical cost. Hence, Railways are the most convenient means of transport in the vast Northern Plains of India. The flat terrain, dense population, rich agricultural resources and greater industrial activity have favoured the development of railways in this region. The Northern Plains, therefore, have the densest road networks. Railways have accelerated the development of industry and agriculture in this region by providing quick availability of raw materials and distributing the finished products to the market.

 

Q.5. Why are the means of transportation and communication called the lifeline of a nation

and its economy?

Ans. Transport system is the means for movement of goods and services from their supply locations to demand locations. The means of transport provide an important link between the producers and consumers of goods. The transport routes or channels are, thus, the basic arteries of our economy. Therefore, efficient means of transport are prerequisites of fast development. They help in development of agriculture and industry by providing raw materials and distributing finished product. A well-knit transport and communication system brings people of different regions within the country and the world closer to one another. This promotes interdependencies between them.

With the development in science and technology, the area of influence of trade and transport has expanded far and wide. Different countries, geographically far from each other, are now engaged in trade relations. A product made in the USA is now available in India. Efficient, and fast-moving transport and communication system has helped to convert the world into a large, closely knit global village. India is part of this network and is well connected with the rest of the world. Its flourishing international trade has added vitality to its economy and enriched the lives of the people by raising their living standards.

A dense and efficient network of transport and communication is a prerequisite of local, national and global trade of today. Thus, modern means of transport and communication serve as lifelines of our nation and its modern enonomy.

Q.6. What is meant by trade? What is the difference between international and local trade?

Ans. Exchange of goods, commodities or services between people, states or countries is termed as trade. Trade means the exchange of products between regions of surplus and regions of deficiency.

The exchange of commodities between two or more countries is termed as international trade.

It may take place through sea, air or land routes.

While local trade is carried on within cities, towns or villages. Exchange of the items take place in local markets where items of local needs are catered to. Local trade mainly takes place through roads, railway or inland waterways.

Export and import are the components of international trade. When goods are traded out from a country to other countries, it is termed as export. When goods are traded and brought into a country from other countries, it is termed as import.

Export means earning of foreign exchange by the country while imports involve use of foreign exchange.

The difference between export and import of a country is termed as its balance of trade. When the value of exports exceeds the value of imports, it is called favourable balance of trade. If the value of imports exceeds the value of exports, it is termed as unfavourable balance of trade.

Q.7. Write a note on the changing nature of the international trade in the last fifteen years.

Ans. India has trade relations with all the major trading blocks and all geographical regions of the world. Among the commodities of export, whose share has been increasing over the last few years till 2004-05, are agriculture and allied products (2.53%), ores and minerals (9.12%), gems and jewellery (26.75%) and chemical and allied products (24.45%), engineering goods (35.63%) and petroleum products (86.12%).

The commodities imported by India included petroleum and petroleum products (41.87%), pearls and precious stones (29.26%), inorganic chemicals (29.39%), coal, coke and briquettes (94.17%) machinery (12.56%). Bulk imports as a group registered a growth accounting for 39.09% of total imports.

This group includes fertilisers (67.01%), cereals (25.53%), edible oils (7.94%) and newsprint (5.51%)

International trade has undergone a sea of change in the last fifteen years. Exchange of commodities and goods have been superseded by the exchange of information and knowledge. India has emerged as a software giant at international level and it is earning large foreign exchange through the export of Information Technology because of its fast growing Business Process Outsourcing (BPO) sector.

IESO papers

For previous years Question Papers of IESO (International Earth Science Olympiad)
visit
https://sites.google.com/site/ineso555/ieso-question-papers

Class IX - Population

NCERT TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS

Questions Within The Lesson

Q.1. Find out what could be the reasons of uneven distribution of population in India.

(Page 54)

Ans. Rugged terrain and unfavourable climatic conditions are primarily responsible for sparse population in some areas. Hilly, dissected and rocky nature of the terrain, moderate to low rainfall, shallow and less fertile soils influence population in hilly areas. Flat plains with fertile soils and abundant rainfall have led a large number of people to settle in the densely populated Northern Plains.

Q.2. Table 6.1 reveals that despite the decline growth rates, the numbers of people being added every decade is steadily increasing. Why? (Page 56)

Ans. Increased facilities provided to live a comfortable life and better medical facilities that have brought down the death rate is the cause for increase in people being added every decade despite the decline in growth rate.

Q.3. Find out what could be the reasons for such (sex ratio) variations. (Page 58)

Ans. The reasons for sex ratio variations in the states of India is the social makeup of India. The people here have remained in favour of male child leading to female foeticide and dowry problems which makes people think of female children as a burden. In states like Kerala there are well educated people who also follow matriarchal society rules and sex ratio in Kerala is 1058 females per 1000 males. In Haryana female child is looked down upon and most female foeticide cases occur here. Thus it has sex ratio of 861 females per 1000 males.

Questions in the Exercise

Q.1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below :

(i) Migrations change the number, distribution and composition of the population in:

(a) the area of departure (b) both the area of departure and arrival

(c) the area of arrival (d) none of the above

Ans. Both the area of departure and arrival

(ii) A large proportion of children in a population is a result of

(a) high birth rates (b) high life expectancies

(c) high death rates (d) more married couples

Ans. High birth rates

(iii) The magnitude of population growth refers to :

(a) the total population of an area

(b) the number of persons added each year

(c) the rate at which the population increases

(d) the number of females per thousand males

Ans. The total population of an area

(iv) According to the Census 2001, a literate person is one who

(a) can read and write his/her name

(b) can read and write any language

(c) is 7 year old and can read and write any language with understanding

(d) knows 3 Rs (reading, writing, arithmetic)

Ans. Is seven year old and can read and write any language with understanding.

Q.2. Answer the following questions briefly.

(i) Why is the rate of population growth in India declining since 1981?

Ans. The rate of population growth has been declining as a result of greater use of birth control measures.

(ii) Discuss the major components of population growth.

Ans. The major components of population growth are Birth Rate, Death Rate and Migration. The difference between birth rate and death rate accounts for natural increase in population. Adoption of family planning measures leads to decline in birth rate. Better availability of medical facilities leads to decrease in death rate.

Internal migration only changes the pattern of population over different parts of the country. International migration affects both the magnitude and the quality of population.

(iii) Define age structure, death rate and birth rate.

Ans. Birth rate is the number of live births per thousand persons in a year. Death rate is the number of deaths per thousand persons in a year. Age structure refers to the number of people in different age groups.   The commonly adopted age groups are Children (0-14 years), Adults (15-59 years) and Aged (60 years and above)

(iv) How is migration a determinant of population change?

Ans. Internal migration determines population change across regions and territories within the country. In India there has been a significant migration from the rural areas to the cities. Apart from magnitude, migration also brings about change in terms of sex ratio and age composition. The migration from rural areas comprises only men. As such, the sex ratio in village registers a decline and so does the age composition. The number of able-bodied men in villages is reduced as a result of the rural-urban migration.

Q.3. Distinguish between population growth and population change.

Ans. Population growth is different from population change. Population growth is determined by the birth and death rates. Population change, on the other hand, is determined by the birth and death rates and also by migration.

Q.4. What is the relation between occupational structure and development?

Ans. Development is related to occupational structure of the population. Countries are less developed where a higher percentage of population is engaged in primary occupations like agriculture, animal husbandry, forestry and fishing.

As development takes place more people move into secondary occupations like manufacturing.In highly developed societies, there are a high percentage of people involved in tertiary occupations like banking, commerce, transport and administration.

Q.5. What are the advantages of having a healthy population?

Ans. Health is an important component of population composition, which affects the process of develpment. A healthy population ensures higher productive efficiency. Absenteeism is low where the workers are healthy.

Q.6. What are the significant features of the National Population Policy 2000?

Ans. (i) The National Population Policy 2000 aims at reducing infant mortal rate to below 30 per thousand live births. (ii) The policy framework provides for imparting free and compulsory school education up to 14 years of age. (iii) Some other areas of attention are promoting delayed marriages for girls and achieving universal immunisation of children against all vaccine preventable diseases. Family planning programme is to be promoted on a voluntary basis.

Class IX - Population

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)

Q.1. Who among the following are resource creating factors as well as resources themselves?

(a) Animals (b) Plants (c) Human beings (d) Nature

Ans. (c)

Q.2. In which of the following instances does a natural event like a flood or Tsunami become a ‘disaster’?

(a) Only when they affect a crowded village or town

(b) When the natural events are of great intensity

(c) When they happen in the environment (d) When they affect large uninhabited areas

Ans. (a)

Q.3. The numbers, distribution, growth and characteristics of which of the following provide the basic background for understanding and appreciating all aspects of the environment?

(a) Natural resource (b) Population (c) Flora (d) Fauna

Ans. (b)

Q.4. Why is it important to know how many people are there in a country, where do they live, how and why their numbers are increasing and what are their characteristics?

(a) Population is the pivotal element in social studies

(b) To exploit the natural resources of the country

(c) Human beings are producers and consumers of resources

(d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

Q.5. From which of the following do we get information regarding the population of our country?

(a) Textbooks (b) Survey of India (c) Census  (d) Geological Survey of India

Ans. (c)

Q.6. Which of the following is a major concern of study about the population of a country?

(a) Population size and distribution

(b) Population growth and processes of population change

(c) Characteristics or qualities of the population (d) All the above

Ans. (d)

Q.7. India accounts for what percentage of the world population?

(a) 1.02 per cent (b) 2.4 per cent (c) 3.28 per cent (d) 16.7 per cent

Ans. (d)

Q.8. Which is the most populous state of India?

(a) Maharashtra (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Rajasthan

Ans. (b)

Q.9. Which state has the lowest population ? (CBSE 2010)

(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Himachal Pradesh (c) Goa (d) Sikkim

Ans. (d)

Q.10. Which of the following union territories of India has a very low population?

(a) Andaman and Nicobar (b) Lakshadweep (c) Chandigarh (d) Pondicherry

Ans. (b)

Q.11. Almost half of India’s population lives in just five states. Which one of the following is not one of these five populous states?

(a) Maharashtra (b) Bihar (c) West Bengal (d) Arunachal Pradesh

Ans. (d)

Q.12. What percentage of India’s population resides in the most populated state of India, Uttar Pradesh?

(a) 31.2 per cent (b) 16.16 per cent (c) 9.42 per cent (d) 7.41 per cent

Ans. (b)

Q.13. What percentage of India’s population lives in Rajasthan, the biggest state in terms of area?

(a) 16.16 per cent (b) 8.02 per cent (c) 7.79 per cent (d) 5.5 per cent

Ans. (d)

Q.14. The average number of persons per unit area, such as a square kilometre, is termed as

which of the following?

(a) Population distribution (b) Population density (c) Absolute population (d) Population growth

Ans. (b)

Q.15. Which one of the following countries has higher population density than India?

(a) China (b) Bangladesh (c) Canada (d) Korea

Ans. (b)

Q.16. Which of the following figures shows the population density of India?

(a) 1028 million persons (b) 3.28 million square km (c) 324 persons per sq km (d) 13 persons per sq km

Ans. (c)

Q.17. Which one of the following states has very high population density?

(a) West Bengal (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Rajasthan (d) Arunachal Pradesh

Ans. (a)

Q.18. Which of the following states of India has very low population density?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Sikkim (c) Orissa (d) Bihar

Ans. (a)

Q.19. Which of the following states of India has a moderate population density?

(a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Rajasthan (c) Chhattisgarh (d) Tamil Nadu

Ans. (d)

Q.20. Which of the following southern states has a high population density?

(a) Karnataka (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Kerala (d) Tamil Nadu

Ans. (c)

Q.21. Which of the following reasons is responsible for uneven population distribution in India?

(a) Variations in topography or relief in different parts of India

(b) Variations in climate and rainfall distribution

(c) Variations in the rate of industrialisation and urbanisation

(d) All the above

Ans. (d)

Q.22. Which of the following states has a population density below 100 persons per square

kilometre?

(a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Uttarakhand (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Nagaland

Ans. (a)

Q.23. Which of the following states has a population density below 250 persons per square km?

(a) Punjab (b) Haryana (c) Chhattisgarh (d) Jharkhand

Ans. (c)

Q.24. Which one of the following is not one of the factors that resulted in high density of

population in the Northern Plains?

(a) Flat plains with fertile soil (b) Rich mineral deposits

(c) Abundant rainfall (d) Suitable conditions for agriculture

Ans. (b)

Q.25. Which of the following statements about population is correct?

(a) Population is a dynamic phenomenon

(b) The number, distribution and composition of population are static

(c) Population of a country always increases with time

(d) Migrations do not affect the population of a country

Ans. (a)

Q.26. The change in the number of inhabitants of a country during a specific period of time

is referred to by which of the following terms?

(a) Density of population (b) Age composition

(c) Population growth (d) Absolute population

Ans. (c)

Q.27. The magnitude of population growth refers to which of the following?

(a) The number of persons added each year or decade

(b) The rate or the pace of population increase

(c) The total population of an area (d) The number of females per thousand males

Ans. (a)

Q.28. The rate or pace of population increase per year is referred to as  which of the following?

(a) Absolute increase (b) Magnitude of increase (c) Annual growth rate (d) Population change

Ans. (c)

Q.29. Which of the following statements about population growth between 1951 to 1981 is true?

(a) The annual rate of population growth was gradually decreasing

(b) The annual rate of population growth was steadily increasing

(c) The annual rate of population growth was static

(d) Census reports were not available for all decades

Ans. (b)

Q.30. Which of the following changes in growth of population has been noted since 1981?

(a) The annual rate of population growth continued to increase steadily

(b) The annual rate of population growth shot up suddenly

(c) The growth of population could not be computed due to absence of census

(d) The rate of growth of population started declining gradually

Ans. (d)

Q.31. Which among the following is included in the policy framework of NPP 2000 ?

(a) imparting free and compulsory school education above 14 years age

(b) reducing infant mortality rate

(c) acheiving universal immunisation of children against all vaccine preventable diseases

(d) all of these

Ans. (d)

Q.32. Which movement of the people across regions and territories does not change the size of the population ?

(a) Internal (b) External (c) Death rate (d) Birth rate

Ans. (a)

Q.33. What is the rank of India among the population of different countries of the world?

(a) First (b) Second (c) Third (d) Fourth

Ans. (b)Q.34. The main cause for the high growth of our population is

(a) Rise in death rate (b) Decrease in birth rate

(c) Decline of death rate (d) None of these

Ans. (c)

Q.35. What is the average sex ratio of India as per 2001 census ?

(a) 900 (b) 933 (c) 923 (d) None of these

Ans. (b)

Q.36. What is sex ratio?

(a) Number of females per thousand males           (b) Number of females per hundred males

(c) The study of population growth                       (d) Difference between birth rate and death rate

Ans. (a)

Q.37. Which one of the following is the most significant feature of the Indian population?

(a) Declining birth rate (b) Improvement in the literacy level

(c) The size of its adolescent population (d) Improvement in health conditions

Ans. (a)

Q.38. What was the population density of India according to 2001?

(a) 124 person/km2 (b) 224 person/km2 (c) 324 person/km2 (d) 24 person/km2

Ans. (c)

Q.39. A large proportion of children in a population is a result of :

(a) High birth rate (b) High death rate (c) High life expectancies (d) More married couples

Ans. (a)

Q.40. The number of people in different age groups is referred as :

(a) Sex ratio (b) Age composition

(c) adolescent population (d) occupational structure

Ans. (b)

Q.41. Which is the most populous country of the world?

(a) India (b) United States (c) China (d) Russia

Ans. (c)

Q.42. As per 2001 census, which of the following states has the least density of population?

(a) West Bengal (b) Bihar (c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Uttar Pradesh

Ans. (c)

Q.43. Name the Union Territory having the highest density of population.

(a) Chandigarh (b) Delhi

(c) Puducherry (Pondicherry) (d) Daman and Diu

Ans. (b)

Q.44. In how many years is the official enumeration of population carried out for census?

(a) 1 year (b) 5 years (c) 10 years  (d) 2 years

Ans. (c)

Q.45. Which of the following is an important social indicator to measure the extent of equality between males and females in a society at a given time?

(a) Age Composition (b) Literacy Rate (c) Sex Ratio (d) Death Rate

Ans. (c)

Q.46. Which of the following factors are responsible for sparse population? 

(a) Flat plains and abundant rainfall (b) Rugged terrain and unfavourable climate

(c) Fertile soil and abundant rain fall (d) Rugged terrain and favourable climate

Ans. (b)

Q.47. Name the state having the highest percentage of literacy level : 

(a) Kerala (b) Maharashtra (c) Punjab (d) West Bengal

Ans. (a)

Q.48. What year is considered a great demographic divide in India?

(a) 1911 (b) 1921 (c) 1931 (d) 1751

Ans. (b)

Q.49. The magnitude of population growth refers to : 

(a) The total population of an area (b) The number of persons added each year

(c) The rate at which the population increases (d) The number of females per thousand males

Ans. (b)

Q.50. Which state is the most populous state according to 2001 Census?

(a) Bihar (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) West Bengal (d) Madhya Pradesh

Ans. (b)

Q.51. Birth rate is the number of live births per thousand persons in :

(a) 10 years (b) 5 years (c) 2 years (d) 1 year

Ans. (d)

Q.52. When did the National Population Policy come into effect?

(a) 2001 (b) 1947 (c) 1952 (d) 2000

Ans. (d)

Q.53. The country that has a higher population density than India is :

(a) China (b) USA (c) Britain (d) Bangladesh

Ans. (d)

Q.54. The total area of India accounts for how much percent of the world’s area?

(a) 2.4 percent (b) 16.7 percent (c) 3.28 percent (d) 1.02 percent

Ans. (a)

Q.55. Which of the following migration of population does not change the size of the population?

(a) External migration (b) Internal migration (c) International migration (d) National migration  

Ans. (b)10

Class IX - Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Q.1. From the point of view of natural vegetation and wildlife, India belongs to which of the following categories?

(a) One of the twelve mega biodiversity countries of the world

(b) The richest wildlife zone in the world

(c) The country with the greatest forest cover

(d) A country lacking in biodiversity cover

Ans. (a)

Q.2. Which of the following positions does India occupy in the world with regard to plant

diversity?

(a) Fourth (b) Sixth (c) Tenth (d) Twelfth

Ans. (c)

Q.3. Which one of the following is not included in the group of non-flowering plants?

(a) Ferns (b) Orchids (c) Algae (d) Fungi

Ans. (b)

Q.4. Which of the following types of vegetation does not belong to the category of natural vegetation?

(a) Forests (b) Mangroves (c) Horticulture (d) Grasslands

Ans. (c)

Q.5. Which of the following terms is used for the original plant cover of an area which has grown naturally without human aid and has been left undisturbed by humans for a long time?

(a) Natural vegetation (b) Agriculture (c) Gardens (d) Plantations

Ans. (a)

Q.6. Which of the following terms is used for a plant community which has grown naturally without human aid and interference?

(a) Orchards (b) Virgin vegetation (c) Cultivated fields (d) Plantations

Ans. (b)

Q.7. Which of the following terms is used for plants which are at present part of natural vegetation but have originally come to India from abroad?

(a) Indigenous plants (b) Endemic species (c) Endangered plants (d) Exotic plants

Ans. (d)

Q.8. Which of the following terms is used for virgin vegetation which is purely Indian in origin?

(a) Endangered species  (b) Endemic species  (c) Exotic species  (d) Normal species

Ans. (b)

Q.9. Which of the following terms is used to denote plants of a particular region or period?

(a) Ferns (b) Flora (c) Fauna (d) None of the above

Ans. (b)

Q.10. Which of the following terms is used to denote animal species of a particular region or

period?

(a) Fern (b) Flora (c) Fauna (d) None of these

Ans. (c)

Q.11. Which of the following factors influence the type and distribution of natural vegetation?

(a) Landform (b) Soil (c) Climate (d) All the above

Ans. (d)

Q.12. Which of the following types of vegetation is common in fertile, level lands?

(a) Forests (b) Grasslands (c) Mangroves (d) Cultivated crops

Ans. (d)

Q.13. Which of the following types of vegetation usually develops on undulating and rough terrains?

(a) Grasslands and woodlands (b) Mangroves (c) Cactus and thorny bushed (d) Cultivated crops

Ans. (a)

Q.14. Which of the following types of vegetation grows in the sandy soil of the desert?

(a) Coniferous trees (b) Grasslands (c) Cactus and thorny bushes (d) Mangroves

Ans. (c)

Q.15. Which of the following types of vegetation grows in wet, marshy soil?

(a) Grasslands (b) Mangroves (c) Cactus (d) Alpine vegetation

Ans. (b)

Q.16. The character and extent of vegetation are mainly determined by which of the climatic factors?

(a) Temperature (b) Humidity (c) Precipitation (d) All the above

Ans. (d)

Q.17. Due to which of the following reasons does the vegetation on the slopes of the Himalayas and the hills of the peninsula above the height of 915 metres change from tropical to subtropical, temperate and alpine vegetation?

(a) Soil (b) High humidity (c) Fall in temperature (d) Very heavy rainfall

Ans. (c)

Q.18. Which of the following types of vegetation grows in areas with mean annual average temperature of above 24°C?

(a) Tropical (b) Subtropical (c) Temperate (d) Alpine

Ans. (a)

Q.19. Which of the following types of vegetation zones is found in the higher reaches of the Himalayas with mean annual average temperature below 7°C?

(a) Tropical (b) Subtropical (c) Alpine (d) Temperate

Ans. (c)

Q.20. Trees grow faster in which of the following seasons?

(a) Winter (b) Summer (c) Rainy season (d) Autumn

Ans. (b)

Q.21. Why are the southern slopes in Himalayan region covered with thick vegetation as compared to northern slopes of the same hills?

(a) On account of more exposure to sunlight

(b) On account of more precipitation

(c) On account of less exposure to colder winds (d) All the above

Ans. (d)

Q.22. Why are the western slopes of the Western Ghats covered with thick forests and not the eastern slopes?

(a) On account of more precipitation

(b) On account of less exposure to cold winds

(c) On account of more exposure to sunlight (d) All the above

Ans. (a)

Q.23. Which of the following types of resources can forests be considered as?

(a) Exhaustible resources (b) Non-renewable resources (c) Renewable resources (d) Abiotic resources

Ans. (c)

Q.24. How do forests influence the climate of a place?

(a) Modify local climate (b) Control wind force and temperature (c) Cause rainfall (d) All the above

Ans. (d)

Q.25. By which of the following ways do forests control the soil cover of an area?

(a) Control soil erosion (b) Provide humus to the soil (c) Regulate stream flow (d) All the above

Ans. (d)

Q.26. Due to which of the following reasons has the vegetation of most of the areas been modified or replaced or degraded?

(a) Shelter to wildlife (b) Human occupancy (c) Soil erosion (d) Change of climate

Ans. (b)

Q.27. India’s natural vegetation has undergone many changes due to which of the following factors?

(a) Growing demands for cultivated land (b) Development of industries and mining

(c) Overgrazing of pastures (d) All the above

Ans. (d)

Q.28. Which of the following states and union territories of India has the largest percentage of its area under forest cover?

(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (b) Arunachal Pradesh (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Madhya Pradesh

Ans. (a)

Q.29. Which of the following states of India has the least percentage of its area under forest cover?

(a) Assam (b) Punjab (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Sikkim

Ans. (b)

Q.30. Which of the following states of India has the largest percentage of the area under forest cover?

(a) Maharashtra (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Nagaland (d) Orissa

Ans. (c)

Q.31. Ebony, mahogany and rosewood trees are grown in which type of the following forests ?

(a) Deciduous forest (b) Tropical rainforest (c) Tropical thorn forest (d) Coniferous forest

Ans. (b)

Q.32. At which of the following places are Royal Bengal tigers found ?

(a) Mahanadi delta (b) Godawari delta (c) Kaveri delta (d) Sunderban delta

Ans. (d)

Q.33. Moist tropical deciduous forests are more prominent in the eastern and central parts of India because :

(a) Most of the rivers are found in these parts.

(b) The soil is ideally suited for such activities

(c) These areas experience 100 to 200 cm of annual rainfall

(d) There is commercial significance of such forests in these areas.

Ans. (c)

Q.34. The yak, shaggy-horned wild ox and the Tibetan antelope are found in which one of the following regions?

(a) Tibet (b) Uttarakhand (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Ladakh

Ans. (d)

Q.35. Which among the following natural vegetation is most predominant in India?

(a) Tropical deciduous forest (b) Alpine forest (c) Thorny bushes (d) Mangrove forest

Ans. (a)

Q.36. Which one of the following is the Biosphere Reserve of India?

(a) Gir (b) Nilgiri (c) Kanheri (d) None of these

Ans. (b)

Q.37. Where in India do flamingos migrate to nest in large numbers?

(a) Thar (b) Rann of Kachchh (c) Coastal areas (d) Himalayas

Ans. (b)

Q.38. Which forest is affected by tides in coastal areas?

(a) Alpine (b) Coniferous (c) Deciduous (d) Mangroves

Ans. (d)

Q.39. Dachigam in Jammu and Kashmir is a

(a) National Park (b) Wildlife Sanctuary (c) Bird Sanctuary (d) Reserve Forest

Ans. (b)

Q.40. Plant community which has grown naturally without human aid and has been left

undisturbed by humans for long time, is termed as :

(a) Tundra vegetation (b) Virgin vegetation (c) Taiga plants (d) None of the above

Ans. (b)

Q.41. Which one of the following trees are found in tropical rainforests?

(a) Mahogany (b) Teak (c) Sal (d) Peepal

Ans. (a)

Q.42. Which parts of Himalayasare covered with dense forest?

(a) Northern (b) Eastern (c) Western (d) Southern

Ans. (d)

Q.43. How many types of plant species are found in India? [2011 (T-2)]

(a) About 45,000 (b) About 40,000 (c) About 47,000 (d) About 20,000

Ans. (c)

Q.44. In which of the following states is Dachigam wildlife sanctuary located?

(a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Punjab (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Uttarakhand

Ans. (a)

Q.45. Which one of the following states does not have the Tropical deciduous forests?

(a) Jharkhand (b) Western Orissa (c) Chhattisgarh (d) Rajasthan

Ans. (d)

Q.46. Ebony, Mahogany and Rosewood trees are grown in which of the following forests?

(a) Coniferrous forests (b) Tropical rainforest (c) Tropical thorn forest (d) Deciduous forest

Ans. (b)

Q.47. The elephants are found in the hot-wet forests of ________.

(a) Punjab and Haryana (b) Rajasthan and Gujarat

(c) West Bengal and Jharkhand (d) Assam and Karnataka

Ans. (d)

Q.48. Which of the following is not a important tree of tropical rainforest?

(a) Ebony (b) Rosewood (c) Mahogany (d) Sandalwood

Ans. (d)

Q.49. Which one of the following animals lives in the swampy and marshy lands of Assam and West Bengal?

(a) Tiger (b) Lion (c) One-horned Rhino (d) Elephants

Ans. (c)

Q.50. A very large ecosystem on land having distinct type of vegetation and wildlife is called

(a) Ecology (b) Biome (c) Biodiversity (d) Biosphere reserve

Ans. (b)

Q.51. Which medicinal plant has high antibiotic and antibacterial properties

(a) Sarpagandha (b) Neem (c) Kachnar (d) Babool

Ans. (b)

Q.52. The Yak (ox) and the Bharal are found in __________.

(a) Uttarakhand (b) Himachal Pradesh (c) Jammu and Kashmir (d) Ladakh

Ans. (d)

Q.53. Silver fir is found in the following type of vegetation zone :

(a) Mangrove forests (b) Thorn forests (c) Montane (d) Decidous forest

Ans. (c)

Q.54. Trees in a thorn forest are :

(a) Tall (b) dense (c) scattered (d) None of these

Ans. (c)

Q.55. Which is the natural habitat of the Indian lion?

(a) Sundarban delta in Bengal (b) Gir forest in Gujarat

(c) Thorn forest in Rajasthan (d) Decidious forest in Madhya Pradesh

Ans. (b)

Q.56. Which one of the following types of vegetation does rubber belong to? [2011 (T-2)]

(a) Tundra (b) Tidal (c) Himalayan (d) Tropical evergreen

Ans. (d)

Q.57. Which of the following trees is used for treating blood pressure?

(a) Jamun (b) Tidal (c) Neem (d) Sarpagandha

Ans. (d)

Q.58. Which of the following forests is found in heavy rainfall areas of the Western Ghats, island groups and upper parts of Assam?

(a) Tropical evergreen (b) Tropical deciduous

(c) Mountain forest (d) Tidal forests

Ans. (a)

Q.59. Ebony and rosewood trees are found in the areas of rainfall :

(a) more than 200 cm (b) more than 100 cm (c) more than 70 cm (d) less than 50 cm

Ans. (a)

Q.60. In which of the following parts of India evergreen forests are found?

(a) Assam (b) Rajasthan (c) Orissa (d) Uttar Pradesh

Ans. (a)

Q.61. Tropical rainforests grow well in areas receiving __________ rainfall.

(a) 200 cm (b) 150 cm (c) 100 cm (d) 70 cm

Ans. (a)

Q.62. Most widespread vegetation in India is

(a) Coniferous forests (b) Tropical rainforests (c) Tropical deciduous forests (d) Mangrove forests

Ans. (c)

Q.63. In which year Wildlife Protection Act was implemented in India?

(a) 1952 (b) 1962 (c) 1972 (d) 1982

Ans. (c)

Q.64. Ebony, mahogany, rosewood, rubber and cinchona are the important trees of?

(a) Tropical deciduous forests (b) Mangrove forests (c) Tropical evergreen forests (d) Montane forests

Ans. (c)

Q.65. Which one of the following bio-reserves of India is not included in the world network bio-reserve?

(a) Manas (b) Sunderbans (c) Gulf of Mannar (d) Nanda Devi

Ans. (a)

Q.66. Which of the following types of natural vegetation have originally come to India from abroad?

(a) Rare species (b) Endemic Species (c) Endangered species (d) Exotic Species

Ans. (d)12

Class IX - Climate

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)

Q.1. Which of the following terms refers to the sum total of weather conditions and variations over a large area for a long period of time (more than thirty years)?

(a) Atmosphere (b) Annual range of temperature (c) Climate (d) Monsoons

Ans. (c)

Q.2. Which of the following is not an elements of weather and climate?

(a) Atmospheric pressure (b) Temperature (c) Humidity (d) Altitude

Ans. (d)

Q.3. Which of the following statements defines weather?

(a) Envelope of air surrounding earth

(b) State of the atmosphere over an area at any point of time

(c) Atmospheric conditions over a large area for a long period of time

(d) Generalised monthly atmospheric conditions.

Ans. (b)

OR

Which one of the following terms is used for the state of atmosphere over an area at any point of time ?

(a) Weather (b) Winds (c) Climate (d) Pressure

Ans. (a)

Q.4. In which of the following places of India precipitation is in form of snowfall?

(a) Shillong (b) Drass (c) Chandigarh (d) Haridwar

Ans. (b)

Q.5. Which of the following places of India experiences the highest summer temperature?

(a) Pahalgam (b) Leh (c) Thiruvananthapuram (d) Jaisalmer

Ans. (d)

Q.6. Which of the following is the rainiest station?

(a) Shillong (b) Mumbai (c) Chennai (d) Kolkata

Ans. (a)

Q.7. Which one of the following is the driest station?

(a) Mumbai (b) Leh (c) Bengaluru (d) Delhi

Ans. (b)

Q.8. Most parts of India receive rainfall during which of the following months?

(a) December to February (b) March to May (c) June to September (d) October to November

Ans. (c)

Q.9. In which of the following months does the Tamil Nadu coast get most of its rainfall?

(a) December to February (b) March to May (c) June to September (d) October to November

Ans. (d)

Q.10. Which of the following places in India experiences a very high diurnal range of temperature?

(a) Kolkata (b) Jodhpur (c) Chennai (d) Delhi

Ans. (b)

Q.11. In which of the following places of India there is very little difference between day and night temperatures?

(a) Guwahati (b) Nagpur (c) Thiruvananthapuram (d) Delhi

Ans. (c)

Q.12. In which of the following places are houses built on stilts?

(a) Assam (b) Rajasthan (c) Goa (d) Kerala

Ans. (a)

Q.13. Which one of the following is not one of the six major controls of the climate of any place?

(a) Latitude (b) Temperature (c) Pressure and wind system (d) Distance from the sea

Ans. (b)

Q.14. Latitude and altitude of a place determine which of the following climatic elements of a place?

(a) Pressure and wind system (b) Temperature (c) Rainfall pattern (d) All the above

Ans. (d)

Q.15. Which of the following places have cooler climate even during summers?

(a) Allahabad (b) Mumbai (c) Mussoorie (d) Amritsar

Ans. (c)

Q.16. Which of the following places of India experiences extreme type of climate?

(a) Shillong (b) Bengaluru (c) Chennai (d) Delhi

Ans. (d)

Q.17. Due to which of the following factors does Pune receive much lesser rainfall as compared

to Mumbai?

(a) It is located on the leeward side of Western Ghats

(b) It is located on windward side of Western Ghats

(c) Continentality (d) Distance from the sea

Ans. (a)

Q.18. Which of the following latitudes passes through the middle of our country, giving it the characteristics of tropical as well as subtropical climate?

(a) Tropic of Capricorn (b) Tropic of Cancer (c) Equator (d) 82°30'N

Ans. (b)

Q.19. The  Indian subcontinent experiences comparatively milder winters as compared to

Central Asia due to which of the following factors?

(a) The Tropic of Cancer (b) The surrounding seas (c) The Himalayas (d) Ocean currents

Ans. (c)

Q.20. Which of the following atmospheric conditions govern the climate and associated weather conditions in India?

(a) Pressure and surface winds (b) Upper air circulation

(c) Western cyclonic disturbances and tropical cyclones (d) All the above

Ans. (d)

Q.21. Which of the following winds brings widespread rainfall over the mainland of India?

(a) Northeasterly (b) Westerlies (c) Southwest monsoon winds (d) Sea breeze

Ans. (c)

Q.22. Which of the following is a component of upper air circulation?

(a) North-easterlies (b) Jet stream (c) South-west monsoon (d) Kal Baishakhi

Ans. (b)

Q.23. From which of the following pressure belts do the north-easterly trade winds originate?

(a) Equatorial low pressure belt

(b) Subtropical high pressure belt of the Northern Hemisphere

(c) Subtropical high pressure belt of the Southern Hemisphere

(d) Temperate low pressure belt of the Northern Hemisphere

Ans. (b)

Q.24. Due to which of the following reasons are the southwest monsoons rainbearing winds?

(a) They blow from low pressure area of northeastern India towards the seas

(b) They are seasonal winds

(c) They blow over warm Indian Ocean and gather moisture

(d) They strike the Himalayas

Ans. (c)

Q.25. Which of the following prevents the southwest monsoon winds from escaping from India?

(a) The surrounding seas (b) The Himalayas (c) Low pressure over Central Asia (d) The Indian deserts

Ans. (b)

Q.26. The word monsoon is derived from a word which literally means which of the following?

(a) Seasons (b) Wind pattern (c) Change (d) Mausumbi

Ans. (a)

Q.27. In which of the following stations of India's mainland does the monsoons arrive first?

(a) Thiruvananthapuram (b) Kolkata (c) Chennai (d) Delhi

Ans. (a)

Q.28. By which of the following dates do southern parts of our islands receive their first monsoon showers?

(a) First week of April (b) First week of May (c) First week of June (d) Mid-October

Ans. (a)

Q.29. Which of the following stations of India experiences snowfall in winter?

(a) Aurangabad (b) Guwahati (c) Ooty (d) Srinagar

Ans. (d)

Q.30. Which of the following causes rainfall in West Bengal during the hot weather season?

(a) Mango showers (b) Kal Baishakhi (c) Southwest monsoon (d) Retreating Monsoon

Ans. (b)

Q.31. In  which month the transition season changes the hot rainy season to dry winter season?

(a) December to February (b) February to March (c) June to July (d) October to November

Ans. (d)

Q.32. The term monsoon is originated from?

(a) German (b) Hindi (c) Latin (d) Arabic

Ans. (d)

Q.33. Kal Baisakhi is associated with

(a) Punjab (b) Kashmir (c) Karnataka (d) Bengal

Ans. (d)

Q.34. The peninsular part of India experiences peak summers earlier than northern India because :

(a) There is less rainfall in the peninsula during that time.

(b) Cold waves from Central Asia sweeps through the northern plains during the time.

(c) Due to northward movement of the sun, the global heat belt shifts northward

(d) Clouds do not form in those months

Ans. (c)

Q.35. Bengal, Orissa and Andhra Pradesh coasts are frequented by cyclones because

(a) The level coastline makes the cyclones penetrate these areas earlier

(b) These areas are close to a volcano

(c) Low pressure conditions in northwest India lead to the creation of depression over Andaman sea.

(d) Heavy rainfall in these parts encourage strong wind conditions

Ans. (c)

Q.36. Mango showers occur in which one of the following group of two states?

(a) Bihar and West Bengal (b) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh

(c) Karnataka and Kerala (d) Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh

Ans. (c)

Q.37. Which is the coldest place in India?

(a) Drass (b) Srinagar (c) Shillong (d) Bikaner

Ans. (a)

Q.38. Which area is not an area of low precipitation?

(a) Western Rajasthan and Gujarat (b) Leh in Jammu and Kashmir (c) Deccan plateau (d) Assam

Ans. (d)

Q.39. In winter the western cyclonic disturbances originate from which sea?

(a) Mediterranean Sea (b) Indian Ocean (c) Caspian Sea (d) Arabian Sea

Ans. (a)

Q.40. Which one of the following states suffers from loo?

(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Gujarat (d) None of these

Ans. (c)12

Class IX - Clothing : A Social History

NCERT TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS

Q.1. Explain the reasons for the changes in clothing patterns and materials in the eighteenth century.

Ans. After the 18th century, the colonisation of most of the world by Europe, the spread of democratic ideals and the growth of an industrial society completely changed the ways in which people thought about dress. People could use styles and materials that were drawn from other cultures and locations. Western dress styles for men were adopted worldwide.

Q.2. What were the sumptuary laws in France?

Ans. From 1294 to the time of the French Revolution in 1789, the people of France were expected

to strictly follow the sumptuary laws. The laws tried to control the behaviour of those considered socially inferior, preventing them from wearing certain clothes, consuming certain foods and beverages, and hunting game in certain areas.

Q.3. Give an example of any two examples of the ways in which European dress codes were different from Indian dress codes.

Ans. European dress codes were different from Indian dress codes. Let us take the example of the turban and the hat. The two headgears not only looked different but also signified different things. The turban in India was not just for protection from the heat but was a sign of respectability and could not be removed at will. In the western tradition, the hat had to be removed before social superiors as a sign of respect.

The shoe is another example. The Indians took off their shoes when they entered a sacred place. The British did not do so.

Q.4. In 1805, a British official, Benjamin Heyne, listed the manufactures of Bangalore which included the following :

(i) Women’s cloth of different musters and names

(ii) Coarse chintz

(iii) Muslins

(iv) Silk cloths.

Of the list, which kind of cloth would have definitely fallen out of use in the early 1800s and why?

Ans. Muslin would have fallen out of use as machine cloth had flooded the Indian markets and was cheaper. Muslin was expensive and hence was not used. In fact, the Industrial Revolution brought about a complete change in which muslin cloth had no place.

Q.5. Suggest reasons why women in nineteenth century India were obliged to continue wearing traditional Indian dress even when men switched over to the more convenient western clothing. What does this show about the position of women in society?

Ans. Women in the 19th century India were obliged to continue wearing traditional Indian dress even when men switched over to more convenient western clothes. This clearly shows that women during that time were accorded a lower status than men in society. They were not allowed to be aware of what was going on outside the house and were confined within the four walls of their homes. Modernity and change were not for them.

Q.6. Winston Churchill described Mahatma Gandhi as a ‘seditious Middle Temple lawyer’ now ‘posing as a half naked fakir.’ What provoked such a comment and what does it tell you about the symbolic strength of Mahatma Gandhi’s dress?

Ans. Mahatma Gandhi went to the Viceroy’s house clad in a  dhoti.  This signified the symbolic strength of his dress. It showed the pride he had for his nation and its people, especially the peasants. It also signified how he identified with his people and the strength he derived from them.

Q.7. Why did Mahatma Gandhi’s dream of clothing the nation in khadi appeal only to some sections of Indians?

Ans. Mahatma Gandhi’s dream was to clothe the whole nation in khadi. But it was not easy for everyone to follow in his footsteps. Not many could take to a single peasant loincloth as he had. Some could not afford khadi which was expensive and some preferred to be dressed in finer cloth of various colours and designs.

Class IX - Clothing : A Social History

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 

Q.1. Which of these changes came about in dressing styles after the 18th century?

(a) People dressed according to their regional codes

(b) Dressing was limited by the types of clothes and the cost of material available in their region

(c) Clothing styles were strictly regulated by class, gender or status

(d) People could use styles and materials that were drawn from other cultures and locations

Ans. (d)

Q.2. The existing dress codes in Europe were swept away by

(a) American Revolution (b) French Revolution

(c) Russian Revolution (d) The First World War

Ans. (b)

Q.3. State the period when people of France were expected to strictly follow the ‘Sumptuary Laws’?

(a) 1294 to 1798 (b) 1300 to 1799 (c) 1308 to 1800 (d) 1350 to 1809

Ans. (a)

Q.4. Which one of the following is the most appropriate definition of Sumptuary Laws?

(a) Laws on taxes framed by the government

(b) Laws giving privileges to higher sections of society

(c) Laws meant to emphasise the social hierarchy (d) All the above

Ans. (c)

Q.5. Which of these sentences is not correct about medieval France?

(a) The items of clothing a person could purchase was regulated not only by income but by social rank

(b) The material to be used for clothing was legally prescribed

(c) Everybody could wear expensive materials

(d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

Q.6. Simplicity of clothing was the symbol of which of the following in France?  

(a) Liberty (b) Fraternity (c) Equality (d) None of these

OR

The simplicity of clothing of ‘Sans-Culottes’ was meant to express

(a) the poverty among the common people

(b) the prosperity of textile industries

(c) the idea of equality

(d) none of the above

Ans. (c)

Q.7. Which of the following were among the things that became a symbol of equality and liberty among the French people?

(a) The colours of France–blue, white and red

(b) The red cap

(c) Revolutionary cockade pinned on to a hat

(d) All the above

Ans. (d)

Q.8. England passed a law which compelled all persons over 6 years of age, except those of high position, to wear woolen caps made in England on Sundays and all holy days. What does this mean?

(a) All sumptuary laws were meant to emphasis social hierarchy

(b) Some sumptuary laws were passed to protect home production against imports

(c) Some sumptuary laws were made to promote the religion

(d) None of the above

Ans. (b)

Q.9. In Victorian England why were women from childhood tightly laced up and dressed in stays, because : 

(a) they were dutiful and docile

(b) these clothes helped in creating the expected image of girls

(c) women were trained to bear and suffer

(d) women looked graceful in these dresses

Ans. (d)

OR

How did clothing play a part in creating the image of frail, submissive women?

(a) From childhood, girls were tightly laced up

(b) When slightly older, girls had to wear tight fitting corsets

(c) Tightly laced, small waisted women were admired as attractive, elegant and graceful

(d) All the above

Ans. (d)

Q.10. When did women in England start agitating for democratic rights?

(a) 1820s (b) 1830s (c) 1840s (d) 1850s

Ans. (b)

Q.11. Who said the following, ‘It is evident physiologically that air is the pabulum of life, and that the effect of a tight cord round the neck and of tight lacing differ only in degrees ... for the strangulations are both fatal. To wear tight stays in many cases is to wither, to waste, to die.’

(a) The Registrar General in the Ninth Annual Report of 1857

(b) Martha Somerville (c) John Keats (d) Thackeray

Ans. (a)

Q.12. On what grounds were the traditional feminine clothes criticised in the USA?

(a) Long skirts swept the grounds collecting filth and causing illness

(b) The skirts were voluminous and difficult to handle

(c) They hampered movement and prevented women from working and earning

(d) All the above

Ans. (d)

Q.13. Which of the following associations in the USA campaigned for dress reform in the 1870s?

(a) National Woman Suffrage Association (b) American Woman Suffrage Association

(c) Global Woman Suffrage Association (d) Both (a) and (b)

Ans. (d)

Q.14. Who was the first American dress reformer to launch loose tunics?

(a) Mrs Amelia Bloomer (b) Martha Somerville

(c) Queen Victoria (d) None of the above

Ans. (a)

Q.15. When and where was ‘Rational Dress Society’ started?

(a) 1880, USA (b) 1881, England (c) 1882, France (d) 1883, Russia

Ans. (b)

Q.16. Radical changes in women’s clothing came about due to the

(a) Russian Revolution (b) World War I (c) World War II (d) Both (b) and (c)

Ans. (d)

Q.17. Which of the statements given below is correct?

(a) After 1600, trade with India brought cheap and beautiful ‘chintz’ within the reach of many Europeans

(b) During the Industrial Revolution in the 19th century, cotton clothes became more accessible to people in Europe

(c) By the late 1870s, heavy, restrictive underclothes were gradually discarded

(d) All the above

Ans. (d)

Q.18. Which of the following events had an impact on the dressing style of women?

(a) Women working in industries during the First and Second World Wars.

(b) Gymnastics and games entered school curriculum for women.

(c) The Battle of Waterloo (d) Both (a) and (b)

Ans. (d)

Q.19 Why did the clothes get shorter during the First World War?

(a) Shortage of cloth (b) Out of practical necessity at workplace

(c) New dressing laws were passed (d) None of the above

Ans. (b)

Q.20. Which  of the following were among other important changes that came about for women?

(a) Trousers became a vital part of western women’s clothing

(b) Women took to cutting their hair short for convenience

(c) As women took to gymnastics and games, they had to wear clothes that did not hamper movement

(d) All the above

Ans. (d)

Q.21. Who were the first among the Indians to adopt the western-style clothing?  

(a) Christians (b) Parsis (c) Gujaratis (d) Maharashtrians

Ans. (b)

Q.22. To some Indians western clothes were a sign of

(a) progress (b) modernity

(c) freedom from poverty (d) both (a) and (b)

Ans. (d)

Q.23. Dresses in India were defined by

(a) sumptuary laws (b) caste system (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above

Ans. (c)

Q.24. Why were Shanar women attacked by Nairs in May 1922?

(a) For wearing a tailored blouse

(b) For wearing a cloth across their upper bodies

(c) For wearing gold ornaments (d) For using umbrellas

Ans. (b)

Q.25. When was slavery abolished in Travancore? What did it result in?

(a) 1855, frustration among upper castes (b) 1865, shortage of labour force

(c) 1867, end of caste system

(d) 1895, permission to Shanar women to cover the upper part of their body

Ans. (a)

Q.26. Wearing of which two things created misunderstanding and conflict between the British and the Indians?

(a) the wearing of turban and shoes (b) the umbrella and gold ornaments

(c) the wearing of saris and dhotis (d) The wearing of gowns and long skirts

Ans. (a)

OR

Wearing of which two things created misunderstanding between the British and the Indians?

(a) Turbans (b) Hat (c) Shirt (d) Both (a) and (b)

Ans. (d)

Q.27. Which Governor General asked the Indians to remove their shoes as a mark of respect before him?

(a) Ripon (b) Hastings (c) Amherst (d) Wellesley

Ans. (c)

Q.28. Who was Manockfee Cowasjee Entee?

(a) A taxpayer (b) A  revenue collector (c) An  assessor (d) A technocrat

Ans. (c)

Q.29. Which of these statements are correct about the cultural symbols which Indians began to devise to express unity of the nation?

(a) A debate began over the design of national flag

(b) Poets wrote national songs

(c) The search for a national dress began

(d) All the above

Ans. (d)

Q.30. What was the idea of national dress as suggested by Rabindranath Tagore?

(a) Combination of Hindu and Muslim dress

(b) Combination of Indian and European dress

(c) Only Hindu dress (d) Combination Hindu and Parsi dress

Ans. (a)

Q.31. In the late 1870s, Jnanadanandini Devi, wife of Satyendranath Tagore, adopted ______

(a) British style of skirt and blouse (b) Rajasthani style of Ghagra-Choli

(c) Parsi style of wearing sari (d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

Q.32. Jnanadanandini Devi’s style of wearing sari was adopted by Brahmo Samaji women and came to be called 

(a) Brahmika sari (b) Brahmo sari (c) Samaji sari (d) Bhoomika sari

Ans. (a)

OR

Jnanadanandini Tagore is associated with :

(a) Sans Culottes (b) Brahmika Saris

(c) Community of toddy tappers (d) Partition of Bengal

Ans. (b)

Q.33. In the first decade of the 20th century, which movement in Bengal was linked to the politics of clothing?

(a) Khilafat movement (b) Swadeshi movement

(c) Bardoli satyagraha (d) Champaran satyagraha

Ans. (b)

Q.34. In reaction to which measure of the British did the Swadeshi Movement begin?

(a) Partition of Bengal in 1905 (b) Surat split in 1907

(c) Starting of World War I in 1914 (d) Montague-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919

Ans. (a)

Q.35. Which of the statements are not correct about the Swadeshi movement?

(a) The use of Khadi was made a partiotic duty

(b) Women were urged to throw away their silks and glass bangles

(c) Rough homespun cloth was glorified in songs and poems to popularise it

(d) Men were allowed to wear the British-made clothes

Ans. (d)

Q.36. According to Gandhiji, which kind of dress would have a more powerful political effect?

(a) Western style (b) Indian style

(c) Dressing unsuitably (d) Dressing suitably for the occasion

Ans. (c)

Q.37. Where and why did Gandhi first appear in a  lungi  and  kurta with his head shaved, in 1913?

(a) London, to attend the Round Table Conference

(b) Durban, to protest against the shooting of Indian coalminers

(c) Natal, to show Indian style of dressing

(d) None of the above

Ans. (b)

Q.38. In which year did Gandhiji adopt  dhoti?

(a) 1913 (b) 1915 (c) 1921 (d) 1928

Ans. (c)

Q.39. For Mahatma Gandhi, khadi, white and coarse, was a sign of

(a) purity (b) simplicity (c) poverty (d) all the above

Ans. (d)

Q.40. Why did Mahatma Gandhi adopt loin cloth and a chaddar as his dress?    

(a) it was easy to wear (b) it was not easy to practise

(c) he believed that poor peasants could not afford more than that

(d) it was a political statement of self-respect

Ans. (c)

OR

Gandhiji’s decision to wear loin cloth only (and chaddar  if necessary to protect his body) throughout his life was seen by him as

(a) his duty to the poor (b) saving country’s resources

(c) giving in to the wishes of Britishers (d) none of the above

Ans. (a)

Q.41. Which of the following Indians was associated with the case of defiance of the shoe-respect rule? 

(a) Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar (b) Manockjee Cowasjee Entee

(c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Sir M. Visveswaraya

Ans. (b)

Q.42. Many Dalits from the early 1910s began to wear three-piece suits on all public occasions as :

(a) a political statement of self-respect

(b) they were more comfortable in western style suits

(c) they did not like Khadi as it was a coarse material

(d) they wanted to imitate the British

Ans. (a)

Q.43. Many women reformers in India changed back into traditional clothes as :  

(a) faced by persistent attacks, they decided to conform to conventions

(b) they found the new style of clothing too stylish

(c) new style of clothing did not fit them well

(d) there were no good tailors to stitch the new style of clothing

Ans. (a)

Q.44. Which one of the following statements about women's fashion in the twentieth century is not true?

(a) women started wearing trousers and blouses

(b) women started wearing jewellery

(c) women started wearing shorter skirts (d) women started wearing sober colours

Ans. (b)

Q.45. A long, buttoned coat is called

(a) coat (b) suit (c) maxi (d) achkan

Ans. (d)

Q.46. What was a cockade?

(a) a fashionable dress of France (b) a cap that usually wore on one side

(c) a skirt worn upto the knee (d) a type of fur

Ans. (b)

Q.47. Which among the following is associated with sumptuary laws in France?  

(a) only the members of royalty and aristocracy could wear expensive clothes made of ermine, silk or brocade

(b) promoted for hunting game in certain areas

(c) laws were not strict towards social inferiors

(d) socially inferior were allowed to wear ermine, silk or brocade

Ans. (a)

Q.48. The women in Victorian England wore tightly fitting corsets when they slightly grew older :

(a) because the women could not move freely

(b) it was considered fashionable

(c) because it gave shape and support to the figure

(d) because women were expected to be serious, independent and aggressive

Ans. (c)

Q.49. Which of the following sections of society lamented that those women, who had given up traditional norms of dressing up, no longer looked beautiful?

(a) radicals (b) revolutionaries (c) liberals (d) conservatives

Ans. (d)

Q.50. Who among the following headed the American woman suffrage association?

(a) Lucy Stone (b) Amelia Bloomer (c) Mrs. Stanton (d) None of these

Ans. (c)