NTSE SAMPLE QUESTIONS (01.02.12)

1. Assertion : In 17th century European traders began referring to all finely woven textiles as “Muslin”
    Reason : European traders first encountered fine cotton cloth from India carried by Arab Merchants in Mosul in present day Iraq.
    (A) Both (A) & (R) are correct & (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    (B) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation  of (A)
    (C) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
    (D) (R) is correct but (A) is wrong


2. Assertion: In 1720, the British government enacted ‘Calico Act’
    Reason : In early 18th century the popularity of Indian textiles, wool & Silk began to  increase.
    (A) Both (A) & (R) are correct & (R) is the right explanation of (A)
    (B) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not the right explanation of (A)
    (C) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
    (D) (R) is correct but (A) is wrong

3.  Match the following –
    (a) The Dyer                         (i) Aurang
    (b) The block printers           (ii)Chippigars
    (c) Ware house                     (iii) Rangrez
    (d) Calico                             (iv) Calicut
    (A) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)                             (B) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)  
    (C) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)                             (D) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)


4.  Match the following –
    (a) Rajhara Hills                   (i) Chattisgarh
    (b) Dorabji                          (ii) Bhilai Steel Plant
    (c) Charles weld                  (iii) American geologist
    (d) Masulipatnam                 (iv) Andhra Pradesh
    (A) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)                              (B) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)  
    (C) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)                              (D) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)

5. Assertion : By 1919 the colonial govt. was buying 90% of the steel manufactured by TISCO
    Reason : British experts believed that good quality of steel was being produced is TISCO
    (A) Both (A) & (R) are correct & (R) is thecorrect explanation of (A)
    (B) Both (A) & (R) are correct & (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    (C) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
    (D) (R) is correct but (A) is wrong

6. Assertion : In 1919 TISCO expanded its capacity of producing Iron & Steel.
    Reason : To meet the demands of war, TISCO had to expand its capacity & size.
    (A) Both (A) & (R) are correct & (R) is thecorrect explanation of (A)
    (B) Both (A) & (R) are correct & (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    (C) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
    (D) (R) is correct but (A) is wrong

7.Match the following –
    (a) Spinning Jenny                      (i) 1720
    (b) Steam Engine                       (ii) 1764
    (c) Calico Act                            (iii) 1786
    (d) Death of Tipu Sultan             (iv) 1799
    (A) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)                                            (B) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)  
    (C) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)                                            (D) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) 

8. Assertion : Willian Jones & colebrooke discovered ancient texts, understanding their meaning
    Reason : They were Orientalists & interested in the culture of Asia.
    (A) Both (A) & (R) are correct & (R) is correct explanation of (A)
    (B) Both (A) & (R) are correct & (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    (C) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
    (D) (R) is correct but (A) is wrong

9.  Some statements are given below :
    (1) William Jones had studied Greek & Latin.
    (2) He was a Scholar of French, English & Arabic language
    (3) He arrived in Calcutta in 1793
    (4) He had an appointment as a Junior Judge at the Supreme Court
    Which of the above statements are true –
    (A) 1, 2, 3                (B) 1, 2, 4                 (C) 1, 2, 3, 4                (D) 1, 3, 4

10. Match the following –
    (a) Madrasa in calcutta             (i) 1835
    (b) Hindu college in Banaras     (ii) 1781
    (C) Macaulay Minute              (iii) 1854
    (D) Wood’s Despatch             (iv) 1791
    (A) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)                                         (B) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)  
    (C) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)                                         (D) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)


ANSWERS - Q.1 - (A), Q.2 - (A), Q.3 - (C), Q.4 - (A), Q.5 - (B),
                      Q.6 - (A), Q.7 - (D), Q.8 - (A), Q.9 - (B), Q.10 - (C)

NTSE Sample Paper 17.01.12

Q.1.Match the following :
1. Selvas                                        (i) forest on the eastern slope of Andes
2. Montona                                    (ii) lightest wood of the world
3. Valsa                                          (iii) grassland of ornico basin
4. Llanos                                        (iv) equatorial rain forest of Amazon
Answer Code :
(A) I-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)                                              (B) I-(iv), 2-(ii), 3-(i), 4-(iii)
(C) I-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv)                                              (D) I-(i), 2-(iiii), 3-(ii), 4-(iv)

Q.2. Below are given the categories of seismic zone of India :
1. Very High Risk - Saurashtra, Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Maghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Manipur, Sikkim, Uttaranchal, J & K.
2. High Risk - Entire Himalayan region, part of north Indian plain and parts of Gujarat
3. Moderate Risk - Coastal area
4. Low Risk - Peninsular India
Which one is incorrect ?
(A) 1 and 2           (B) 1, 2 and 3                      (C) 1, 2, 3 and 4                         (D) All are correct

Q.3. Consider the following statements regarding agriculture :
1. Agriculture is a secondary economic activity
2. It includes growing crops, fruits, vegetables, flowers and rearing of livestock.
3. In the world 70 percent of persons are engaged in agricultural activity.
4. Two thirds of India's population is still dependent on agriculture.
Of these statement
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct                                                    (B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(C) 1, 3 and 4 are correct                                                    (D) 2 and 4 are correct

Q.4. Match List I (type of agriculture) with List II (area associated with particular type of agriculture) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
        List I (Type of  Agriculture)                   List II (Area associated with particular type of agriculture)
1. Intensive subsistence agriculture                a. South, Southeast and East Asia
2. Shifting Cultivation                                    b. Sahara, Central Asia Rajasthan and J & K
3. Nomadic Herding                                     c. Malayasia, Brazil and Sri Lnaka
4. Plantation                                                 d. Amajon basin, North east India, Tropical Africa
Codes :
(A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d                                              (B) 1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c
(C) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a                                              (D) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d

Q.5. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
         List I (Basis Of Industries)                             List II ( Types of Industries )
1. Agro based industries                                       a. Paper, Furniture and Pharmaceutical
2. Mineral based industries                                   b. Fish oil manufacturing and sea food processing
3. Marine based industries                                   c. Vegetable oil, dairy and leather industry
4. Forest based industries                                    d. Railway Coaches and building material industries
Codes :
(A) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a                                              (B) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d
(C) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d                                              (D) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a

Q.6.  Which of the following are correctly matched, with regard to location of industries :
1. Textile Industry - India, Hongkong, South Korea , Japan and Taiwan.
2. Jute Textile Industry - Sri Lanka, Singapore, Malayasia.
3. Information Technology Industry - Central California and Bangalore region of India.
4. Iron and Steel Industries - Germany, USA, China, Japan and Russia
Select the correct answer using the codes from the following :
(A) 1, 2 and 3                                                          (B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4                                                         (D) All the above

Q.7. Which of the following were some of the ways in which Indians played a major role in the evolution of the rule of law during the colonial period.
1. Indian began fighting for greater equality.
2. They wanted to change the idea of law from a set of rules that they were forced to obey.
3. They demanded respect in colonial courts as man of legal profession.
4. They began to take law in their hand to defend the legal rights of Indians.
(A) 2, 3 and 4                                                          (B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3                                                         (D) Only 4

Q.8. Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding poor enforcement of law connected with Bhopal Gas Tragedy.
 (A) Government officials accepted to recognize the UC plant as hazardous and did not allow it to come up in a populated locality.
(B) When some municipal official in Bhopal objected that the installation of an MNC production unit in 1978, was a safety violation the position of the government was that  the state needs the continued investment of the plant  which provides jobs.
(C) It was unthinkable according to them to ask UC to shift to cleaner technology or safer procedures.
(D) Government inspectors continued to approve the procedures in the plant even when repeated incidents of leaks from the plant, made it obvious to everybody that things were seriously wrong.

Q.9. Consider some of the statements regarding water shortage :
1. Acute shortage of water is common in all cities in India, during summer months.
2. The Urban Water Commission has set up the standard of water requirement per person in urban area at about 335 litres per day (about 21 buckets)
3. There are great inequalities in water use. Slums have to do with less then 90 litres a day per person, while people living in luxury hotels may consume as much as 1600 litres of water per day.
4. A shortage of municipal water is often taken as the sign of failure of the citizens and not that of the government.
Which of these statements are correct –
(A) 1, 2 and 3                                                          (B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4                                                         (D) Only 2

Q.10. Which one of the following is the reason of private companies supplying water through tankers of supplying drinking water in sealed bottles at a price.
(A) For providing better public welfare                       (B) For the sake of charity
(C) For subsidizing the efforts of the government       (D) For earning profit in the market



ANSWERS - Q.1-(B), Q.2-(D),Q.3-(D),Q.4-(B),Q.5-(B),
                       Q.6-(C),Q.7-(C),Q.8-(A),Q.9-(B),Q.10-(D)

NTSE Sample Paper (16.01.12)

                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                               Q.1 Constitution serves several purposes –

(i) Lays out certain ideals that form the basis of the kind of country that we as citizens aspire to live in.

(ii) Constitution tell us what the fundamental nature of our society is.

(iii) Constitution helps serves as a set of rules and principles that all persons in a country can agree upon as the basis of the way in which they want the country to be governed.

(iv) It includes not only the type of government but also an agreement on certain ideals that they all believe the country should uphold.

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)                                     (B) (i), (ii) and (iv)         

(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)                                   (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Q.2. Read the following lines –

He believed that his participation in the Constituent Assembly helped the Scheduled Castes get some safeguards in the draft constitution. He also stated that although the laws might exist, Scheduled Castes still had reason to fear because the administration of these laws  were in the henads of ‘caste Hindu officers’. He, therefore, urged Scheduled castes to join the government as well as the civil services.

Who is ‘He’ in the above lines –

(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru                                          (B) Mahatma Gandhi

(C) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar                               (D) Shri. A.K.Ayyar

Q.3. Which of the following are the key features of the Indian Constitution ?

1. Federalism

2. Parliamentary Form of Government

3. Separation of powers

4. Fundamental Rights

5. Secularism

6. Presidential form of government

(A) Only 1, 2 and 5  are correct              (B) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 are correct

(C) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are correct                (D) 1, 2 ,3, 4, 5 and 6 all are correct

Q.4. According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the object of the Fundamental Right is two fold

A. Every citizen must be in a position to claim those rights.

B. These rights must be binding upon every authority that has got the power to make laws.

Which of the above statements are correct

(A) A is correct B is false                                    (B) B is correct A is false

(C) Both A and B are correct                               (D) Both A and B are false

Q.5. Why is it important to Separate Religion from the State ?

1. It is important for a country to function democratically.

2. If majority religious group has access to State power, then it could quiet easily use this power and financial resources to discriminate against and persecute persons of other religions.

3. Tyranny of the majority could result in the discrimination, coercion and at times even the killing of religious minorities.

4. Any form of domination based on religion is in violation of the rights that a democratic society guarantees to each and every citizen irrespective of their religion.

5. We also need to protect the freedom of individuals to exit from their religion, embrace another religion or have the freedom to interpret religious teachings differently.

(A) Only 1, 2 and 5 are correct              (B) 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct

(C) 1, 2, 4 and 5 are correct                   (D) 1, 2 ,3, 4 and 5 all are correct

                    

Q.6. In February 2004, France passed a law banning students from wearing any conspicuous religious or political signs or symbols such as the Islamic headscarf, the Jewish skullcap, or large Christian crosses. This law has encountered a lot of resistance from immigrants who are mainly from the former French colonies of Algeria, Tunisia and Morocco. In the 1960s, France had faced a shortage of workers and therefore, had provided visas for these immigrants to come and work in the country. The daughters of these immigrants often wear headscarves while attending school. However with the passing of this new law, they have been expelled from their school for wearing headscarves.

The above incident highlights the violation of which Fundamental Rights –

1. Right against exploitation                                       2. Right to Freedom of Religion

3. Cultural and Education Rights                                4. Right to Constitutional Remedies

(A) 1 and 2 only                                             (B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1 and 4 only                                             (D) 2, 3 and 4 only

Q.7. Which section of the Indian Constitution was designed by the members of the Constituent Assembly to ensure greater social and economic reform, and to serve as a guide to the independent Indian State to institute laws and policies that help reduce the poverty of the masses?

(A) Fundamental Rights                                     (B) Fundamental Duties

(C) Directives Principles Of State Policy           (D) All of these

Q.8. While making the Constitution, the Constituent Assembly had a huge task before them. Work out the features which made this task a difficult task 

1. The country was made up of several different communities who spoke different languages, belonged to different religions and had distinct cultures.

2. The partition of the country in India and Pakistan was imminent; they had to fulfill the expectations of the people who were migrating from other places.

3. Some of the Princely States remained undecided about their future

4. The socio-economic condition of the vast mass of people appeared dismal.

(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct                                              (B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct

(C) 1, 3 and 4 are correct                                              (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 all are correct

Q.9. Work out the features of Federalism as mentioned in the Indian Constitution –

1. Governments at the state level and at the centre. Panchayati Raj is the third tier of the government.

2. While each state in India enjoys autonomy in exercising powers on certain issues, subjects of national concern require that all of these states follow the laws of the central government.

3. Lists that each tier of government can make laws on.

4. Constitution also specifies where each tier of government can get the money from for the work that it does.

5. The states are not merely agents of the federal government but draw their autonomy from the Constitution as well.

6. Most of the important powers lies in the hand of central government and it can overrun the powers of state government anytime by imposing Emergency at its own whims.

(A) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 are correct              (B) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 are correct

(C) 1, 3, 4 and 5 are correct                  (D) 1, 2 ,3, 4 and 5 are correct

Q.10. This includes the right to freedom of speech and expression, the right to form associations, the right to move freely and reside in any part of the country, and the right to practise any profession, occupation or business.

About which Fundamental Right, these lines are referred to –

(A) Right to equality                                        (B) Right to Freedom

(C) Right against exploitation                          (D) Right to Freedom of Religion

ANSWERS - Q.1. (D),Q.2. (C),Q.3. (C),Q.4. (C),Q.5. (D),

                      Q.6. (B),Q.7. (C),Q.8. (D),Q.9. (D),Q.10. (B)    

                        

NTSE SAMPLE PAPER 14.01.12

Q.1. Which of the following are factors of soil formation -
1. Parent Rock        2. Relief             3. Flora, fauna and Micro-organism
4. Climate               5. Time                    

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4                               (B) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(C) 2, 3, 4 and 5                               (D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (all)

Q.2. Below are given some pairs :
    Type of Coal                       Carbon percent
1. Peat                                (i)  60-70 percent
2. Lignite                            (ii) 70-90 percent carbon
3. Bituminous                     (iii) over 90 percent carbon
4. Anthracite                      (iv)  50-60 percent carbon
(A) 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)                           (B) 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)
(C) 1-(ii), 2-(iii), 3-(iv), 4-(i)                           (D) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv)


Q.3
1. Mining                    (i) Deep bores, made to reach mineral deposits that lie at great depths
2. Open-cast mining   (ii) Deep wells bored to take out Petroleum and natural gas
3. Shaft mining           (iii) Minerals that lie near the surface are simply dug out
4. Drilling                   (iv) Minerals that lie at shallow depths are taken out by removing the surface layer
5. Quarrying               (v) Taking out minerals from rocks buried under the earth's surface
(A) 1-(ii), 2-(v), 3-(iv), 4-(iii), 5-(i)                          (B) 1-(iv), 2-(ii), 3-(v), 4-(i), 5-(iii)
(C) 1-(v), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii), 5-(iii)                          (D) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv), 5-(v)


Q.4. Match the correct pairs from the two columns
1. Contour barriers                      (i) Ploughing parallel to the contours of a hill slope to
                                                       form a natural barrier for water to flow down the slope
2. Rock dam                               (ii) Crops grown in alternate rows and are sown at
                                                        different times to protect the soil from rain wash
3. Intercropping                          (iii) Rows of trees planted to check the wind
                                                        movement to protect soil cover
4. Contour ploughing                   (iv) Rocks are piled up to slow down the flow of water.
                                                         This prevents gullies and further soil loss.
5. Shelter belts                            (v) Stones, grass, soil are used to build barriers
                                                       along contours, trenches are made in front of the
                                                       barriers to collect water.

(A) 1-(iv), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(i), 5-(v)                  (B) 1-(v), 2-(iv), 3-(ii), 4-(i), 5-(iii)
(C) 1-(ii), 2-(iii), 3-(iv), 4-(v), 5-(i)                  (D) 1-(iii), 2-(v), 3-(ii), 4-(i). 5-(iv)

Q.5. Given below are some statements
1. Types of rainfall can be clasified as convectional, orographic and cyclonic.
2. Rainfall can be mesured with the help of an instrument called rainguage.
3. Monsoon is a good example of cyclonic rainfall
4. Air moves from high pressure to low pressure
Which statement is/are incorrect
(A) 1, 2 and 3               (B) 2, 3 and 4                  (C) 1 and 3             (D) Only 3

Q.6. Match the following
1. Coal                                         a.  USA has the world's largest power plants,
                                                          followed by New Zealand, Iceland, Philippines
                                                          Central America
2. Petroleum                                  b.  Located in Kalpakkam (T.N), Tarapur (Maharashtra)
                                                           Ranapratap Sagar (Rajasthan), Narora (UP) and
                                                           Kaiga (Karnataka)
3. Nuclear Energy                         c.  Leading producers are Paraguay, Norway, Brazil and China
4. Hydel Power                             d.  Leading producers are China, USA, Germany, Russia, S.Africa and France
5. Geothermal Energy                    e. Chief producing countries are Iran, Iraq, Saudi Arabia and Qatar
Codes:
(A) 1-a, 2-e, 3-c, 4-d, 5-b                                   (B) 1-c, 2-b, 3-e, 4-a, 5-d
(C) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-e, 5-b                                   (D) 1-d, 2-e, 3-b, 4-c. 5-a

Q.7. Consider the following characteristics of energy sources
1. Non-polluting
2. Low cost production of electricity once setup
3. Safe and Clean
4. Easy to operate
5. Are area specific
These characterstics are applicable on
A. Solar Energy                B. Wind Energy               C. Coal     
D. Petroleum                    E. Geothermal Energy      F. Hydel power
(A) A, C, D, E and F                                (B) A, B, D, E and F
(C) A, B, E and F                                     (D) All of them

Q.8 Match the following
1. Intensive Subsistence agriculture               (a)  Practised in temperate grasslands of North America,
                                                                           Europe and Asia
2. Nomadic Herding                                    (b)  Practised in the semi-arid and arid regions of Sahara
                                                                          Central Asia and parts of India, like J.K and Rajasthan
3. Shifting Cultivation                                   (c)  Practised in the thickly populated areas of the monsoon
                                                                           regions of south, southeast and east Asia.
4. Commercial grain farming                        (d)  Practised in Europe, eastern USA, Argentina,
                                                                          southeast Australia, New Zealand and South Africa
5. Mixed Farming                                        (e) Thickly forested area of Amazon basin, tropical Africa, parts
                                                                         of Southeast Asia and Northeast India.


(A) 1-a, 2-e, 3-c, 4-d, 5-b                                   (B) 1-c, 2-b, 3-e, 4-a, 5-d
(C) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-e, 5-b                                   (D) 1-d, 2-e, 3-b, 4-c. 5-a


Q.9.Which one of the following industry is known as Sunshine Industry ?
(A). Iron and Steel Industry                                      (B) Cotton Textile
(C) Power producing industries                                (D) Information Technology

Q.10. Which does the term population distribution refer to ?
  (A) How population in a specified area changes over time.
  (B) The number of people who die in a relation to the number of people born in a specified area.
  (C) The way in which people are spread across in a given area.
  (D) Difference between the Birth rate and the Death rate.



ANSWERS - Q.1.(D), Q.2.(B),Q.3.(C),Q.4.(B),Q.5.(D),
                      Q.6.(D),Q.7.(C),Q.8.(B),Q.9.(D),Q.10.(C)

NTSE Sample Paper (11.01.12)

Q.1. Four largest Harappan settlements in the Indo-Pak sub-continent are
(i) Harappa (ii) Mohenjodaro (iii) Rakhigorhi (iv) Ganeriwala (v) Dholavira (vi) Kalibangan

(A) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)                                                     (B) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)                                                    (D) (i), (ii), (iv) and (vi)

Q.2. Pair the Harappan settlements with the banks of rivers on which they were located :
1. Lothal                                                     (i) Indus
2. Kalibangan                                              (ii) Sutlej
3. Rupar                                                      (iii) Ravi
4. Harappa                                                  (iv) Ghaggar
5. Mohenjodaro                                           (v) Bhogava

(A) 1-(v), 2-(iv), 3-(ii), 4-(iii), 5-(i)
(B) 1-(ii), 2-(v), 3-(i), 4-(iv), 5-(iii)
(C) 1-(iv), 2-(v), 3-(ii), 4-(iii), 5-(i)
(D) 1-(v), 2-(iv), 3-(iii), 4-(ii), 5-(i)


Q.3. Which of the following statements correctly describe the difference between a Chaitya and a Stupa ?
(1) Chaitya is a religious term, while Stupa is an architectural term for a mound containing a relic of the Budhha and later on of leading Buddhist saint.
(2) Chaitya is a place of prayer/worship while Stupa is a funeral monument.
(3) Chaityas were constructed by the monasteries while Stupas were constructed by the kings and the rich chants
(4) Chaityas represents Mahayanism and Stupas Hinayanism

(A) Only (1) is correct                                                      (B) 1 and 2 both are correct
(C) 1, 2 and 3 are correct                                                 (D) 1, 2 ,3 and 4 all are correct


Q.4. Which of the following was not one of the features which Bhagavatism shared in common with Buddhism and Jainism ?
(A) All the three constituted a revolt against the accepted religious creeds of the day
(B) All of them originated in the free atmosphere of independent republican clans – the Shakyas, the Lichhavis and the Satvatas
(C) The founders of all the three were from royal families
(D) All the three believed in he concept of ahimsa

Q.5. Match the five major Mauryan provinces with their capitals :
A. Uttarapatha                                                                        (i) Ujjain
(Northern Province)
B. Avantirtha                                                                           (ii) Suvarnagiri
(Western Province)
C. Dakshinapatha                                                                   (iii) Tosali
(Southern Province)
D. Prachya                                                                             (iv) Pataliputra
(Eastern Province)
E. Central Province                                                                 (v) Taxila

(A) 1-(v), 2-(iv), 3-(ii), 4-(iii), 5-(i)
(B) 1-(ii), 2-(v), 3-(i), 4-(iv), 5-(iii)
(C) 1-(v), 2-(i), 3-(ii), 4-(iii), 5-(iv)
(D) 1-(v), 2-(iv), 3-(iii), 4-(ii), 5-(i)


Q.6. Match the following ruling dynasties with their capitals :
Which one of the following is correct ?
(A) The Chalukyas of Gujarat                                                   (i) Tripuri
(B) The Kalachuris of Chedi                                                     (ii) Anhilwad
(C) The Paramaras of Malwa                                                   (iii) Ajmer
(D) The Chahmans of Sakambari                                              (iv) Dhara

(A) 1-(i), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(iv)                                                (B) 1-(ii), 2-(v), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)
(C) 1-(ii), 2-(iii), 3-(iv), 4-(i)                                                (D) 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)

Q.7. Match the following :
1. Harappan Civilisation                                        (i) Tigris-Euphrates valley
2. Mesopotamian Civilisation                                (ii)Indus Valley
3. Egyptian Civilisation                                          (iii) Nile Valley
4. Chinese Civilisation                                           (iv) Huang-Ho
Answer Code :
(A) 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iii), 4-(iv)                                      (B) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)
(C) 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii)                                      (D) 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)


Q.8. Two terms, the muqta, muqtai or muqti and iqtadars are used regarding the holder of the iqtas during the Delhi Sultanate period. Which of the following statements clearly distinguishes the difference between the maqta and iqtadar ?
(A) The muqti had no territorial position of his own and no claim to any particular region; but the position of the iqtadar, in theory though not permanent and hereditary tended to become permanent.
(B) Almost all provincial governors and the holders of large iqtas were the muqtis and the iqtadars represented small assignments.
(C) The muqti was essentially an administrator of the charge to which he was posted, but the iqtadar had merely to take care of the interests of his assignment
(D) The muqti was assigned a fixed share in revenue and his financial transactions were audited by the officials of the revenue ministry; but the iqtadar had no financial liability to the central exchequer.

Q.9. Match the land revenue settlements with the areas which they were introduced by the British in India :
1. Permanent Settlement                                                   (i) Tamilnadu, Maharashtra, East Bengal,
                                                                                            provinces of Assam and Coorg.
2. Ryotwari System                                                          (ii) Agra, Awadh, NWFP, ceded and
                                                                                            Conquered Provinces
3. Mahalwari System                                                        (iii) Norhtern Karnataka
                                                                                        (iv) Bengal, Bihar and Orissa

(A) 1-(i), 2-(iii), 3-(ii)&(iv)                                               (B) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii)&(iv)
(C) 1-(iii)&(iv), 2-(i), 3(ii)                                                 (D) 1-(iii), 2-(ii)&(iv), 3(i)

Q.10. Match the following Sufi saints with the actual titles given to them by their followers and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
1. Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya                                                              (i) Chirag-i-Delhi
2. Sahikh Nasiruddin Ahmed                                                              (ii) Mahboob-i-Ilahi
3. Saiyid Muhd. Gesu Daraz                                                               (iii) Mujaddid
4. Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi                                                                   (iv) Bandanawaj

(A) 1-(iii),2-(iv),3-(i),4-(ii)                                                (B) 1-(ii),2-(i),3-(iv),4-(iii)
(C) 1-(iv),2-(ii),3-(iii),4-(i)                                                (D) 1-(iii),2-(ii),3-(iv),4-(i)




ANSWERS - Q.1. (A),Q.2. (A),Q.3. (A),Q.4. (C),Q.5. (C),
                      Q.6. (B),Q.7. (A),Q.8. (D),Q.9. (C),Q.10. (B),

IESO & NTSE Stage II (Social-Science) Sample Questions - XII

Q.1 Consider the following disadvantages of an energy resource :
1. Is collection is time consuming.
2. It increases pollution.
3. It promotes green house effect.
4. It leads to deforestation.
Which of the following source of energy best explains the above disadvantages :
(A) Natural oil (B) Coal (C) Fire Wood (D) Nuclear Energy

Q.2. Which of the following statements are incorrect ?
1. Fossil fuel are the main source of conventional energy.
2. The reserves of fuel minerals are limited.
3. The rate at which the growing world population is consuming them is far lesser than the rate of their formation.
4. Fuel minerals are not likely to be exhausted soon.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(A) 1, 2 and 4 (B)1 and 2 (C) 3 and 4 (D) 1, 3 and 4

Q.3. Match the following :
Forests Trees
1. Tropical Evergreen (i) Pine, Cedar, Fir
2. Mid-Latitude Evergreen (ii) Cork, Olive, Chestnut
3. Mediterranean Forest (iii) Oak, Eucalyptus, Wattle
4. Coniferous (iv) Ebony, Mahogany, Rosewood

(A) 1-(iv),2-(iii),3-(ii),4-(i) (B) 1-(iii),2-(iv),3-(i),4-(ii)
(C) 1-(iv),2-(i),3-(ii),4-(iii) (D) 1-(iv),2-(iii),3-(i),4-(ii)

Q.4. Match the following animals with their category of existence :
Animals Category of Existence
1. Black Buck, Lion (i) Normal
2. Desert Fox, Hornbill (ii) Rare
3. Asiatic Cheetah (iii) Extinct
4. Rodents (iv) Endangered

(A) 1-(ii),2-(i),3-(iv),4-(iii) (B) 1-(iv),2-(ii),3-(iii),4-(i)
(C) 1-(ii),2-(iii),3-(iv),4-(i) (D) 1-(iii),2-(ii),3-(i),4-(iv)

Q.5. Read the following :
1. 80 percent of the forests in the world have been cleared.
2. A quarter of the world's 4630 types of mammals and 11 percent of the 9675 bird species are at serious risk of extinction.
3. Global warming will trigger a devastating rise in sea level.
Which of the following best explains all the above ?
(A) Increasing industrialisation (B) Large Scale urbanisation
(C) Increased human activities (D) Large scale modernisation

Q.6. Read the following statements :
1. About 70 percent of the total cultivated area of our country is drought prone.
2. Afforestation, use of drought-resistant crops and encouraging farmers to join crop and seed insurance schemes would help people to cope with drought.
Which one of the following is correct ?
(A) 1 is true, 2 is false (B) 1 is false, 2 is true
(C) Both 1 & 2 are true (D) Both 1 & 2 are false

Q.8. Consider the following statements regarding organic farming :
1. In this type of farming organic manure and natural pesticides are used.
2. In this type of farming chemicals are not used.
3. In this type of farming some generic modifications are done to increase the yield of the crop.
Which of the statements given above are correct :
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3

Q.9. Consider the following statements :
1. It refers to efforts made to increase farm production, in order to meet growing demands of increasing population.
2. This can be achieved in many ways as use of good variety seeds, chemicals fertlisers etc.
3. Some of the ways are, increasing crop area, the number of crops grown.
4. Mechanisation is also another aspect.
Which one of the following best explains the statements given above :
(A) Food security (B) Sustainable development
(C) Human Resource development (D) Agricultural development

Q.10. Match the following :
Fiber Source
1. Vegetable fiber (i) Glass
2. Animal fiber (ii) Stems
3. Mineral fiber (iii) Silkworm
4. Synthetic fiber (iv) Natural cellulose
(A) 1-(ii),2-(iii),3-(i),4-(iv) (B) 1-(iii),2-(i),3-(iv),4-(ii)
(C) 1-(i),2-(ii),3-(iii),4-(iv) (D) 1-(iv),2-(iii),3-(ii),4-(i)




ANSWERS - Q.1. (C),Q.2. (B),Q.3. (A),Q.4. (B),Q.5. (C),
Q.6. (C),Q.7. (A),Q.8. (A),Q.9. (D),Q.10. (A)

The answer given for Question No.56 in the SAT paper by SIERT is wrong. Let us all write a mail to SIERT to force them to recheck the answer of Q. no. 56. Either they must prove us wrong or they should accept our answer/give a bonus mark for this question. I request you all to send a mail to SIERT, their email id. is siert_udr@yahoo.co.in and create a pressure on them to accept the reality. Given below is the format of the mail which you can use -

SIERT has given the answer as option (1), it should be option (2)
The question was -
"Federalism' means more than one level of Govts. in a country; How many levels of Govt. are there in our country -
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five

in Chapter no.1- The Indian Constitution of class VIII, NCERT book, page no.11 discusses about the Key features of the Indian Constitution. The first feature given is Federalism - This refers to the existence of more than one level of government in the country. In India, we have governments at the state level and the centre. Panchayati Raj is the third tier of government and you have read about this in your class VI book.
Chapter no. 2 of class X NCERT book, Federalism, Page no 16 says - The Constitution originally provided for a two-tier system of government, the Union Government or what we call the Central Government, representing the Union of India and the State governments. Later, a third tier of federalism was added in the form of Panchayats and Municipalities.
The above two quotes clearly proves that the answer of Question no.56 should be option (2) rather then option (1) as been claimed by SIERT, Rajasthan.

IESO & NTSE Stage II (Social-Science) Sample Questions - XI

Q.1. What is the epicenter of an earthquake?
A) place of origin of the earthquake inside the earth
B) a point on the fault on which the earthquake occurs
C) a point on the surface of the earth
D) place at which the earthquake is recorded

Q.2. Planet Venus cannot be seen at mid-night in Bangalore’s sky because
A) Venus is very faint when it is away from the Sun.
B) Venus is an inner planet of the solar system
C) Venus is in ‘new moon’ phase at midnight
D) Venus is hidden behind the moon late at night.

Q.3. When the ocean water is green, it contains a large amount of ___________.
A) Suspended matter
B) Phytoplankton
C) Zooplankton
D) Bacteria

Q.4. Which of the following DOES NOT form a part of the hydrological cycle?
A) Evaporation
B) Precipitation
C) Mixing
D) River runoff

Q.5. Sound speed in the oceans does not depend on ___________.
A) Temperature
B) Salinity
C) Pressure
D) Suspended sediment

Q.6. With increasing ocean water depth, light intensity ___________.
A) Diminishes exponentially
B) Diminishes linearly
C) Diminishes quadratically
D) Remains constant

Q.7. Which of the following is INCORRECT about tsunami?
A) Occurs only in the ocean
B) Very long wave length
C) Very high amplitude in the open ocean
D) Is propagated very fast

Q.8. Which of the following processes will NOT change the salinity of ocean water?
A) Sensible heat loss;
B) Wind-mixing;
C) Evaporation;
D) Precipitation

Q.9. When rain adds fresh water to the ocean, the surface density
A) Increases;
B) Decreases;
C) Remains constant;
D) Initially increases but ultimately decreases

Q.10. Which of the following equipment can be used to determine the depth of the ocean?
A) Radar;
B) Sonar;
C) Magnetometer;
D) Echosounder



ANSWERS - Q.1. (C),Q.2. (B),Q.3. (B),Q.4. (C),Q.5. (D),
Q.6. (A),Q.7. (C),Q.8. (A),Q.9. (B),Q.10.(D).

IESO & NTSE Stage II (Social-Science) Sample Questions - X

Q.1. Read the following statements :
1. The courts are not under the government and do not act on their behalf.
2. The removal of judges of the High Court as well as the Supreme Court is very difficult.
3. Courts play crucial role in protecting the Fundamental Rights.
4. Courts ensure that there is no misuse of power by the legislature and the executive.
Which one of the following qualities of judiciary best explains all of the above situations?
(A) Committed Judiciary (B) Faithful Judiciary
(C) Neutral Judiciary (D) Independent Judiciary

Q.2. With reference to the establishment of the rule of law, consider the following statements :
1. All persons in independent India are equal before the law.
2. All laws apply equally to all citizens of the country and no one can be above the law.
3. But some government official, a few wealthy persons, and the President of India are treated differently under the rule of law.
4. The law cannot discriminate between persons on the basis of their religion, caste or gender.
Which of these statements are correct :
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.3. Consider the following statements regarding a Fundamental right in the Constitution of India
1. It includes the right to the enjoyment of pollution free water and air
2. It includes full enjoyment of life
3. The government is responsible for setting up laws and procedures that can check pollution and introduce heavy fines for those who pollute.
Which one of the following Fundamental Rights best explains all of the above
(A) Right against exploitation (B) Right to Freedom
(C) Right to Life (D) Cultural and Educational right

Q.4. Consider the following statements regarding law and social justice
1. Markets everywhere tend to be exploitative of people whether as workers, consumers or producers
2. To protect people from such exploitation the government makes certain laws
3. These laws try to ensure that the unfair practices are kept at a minimum in the markets.
Which of the following acts has been made by government for the workers wages protection on view of all of the above :
(A) Bonded Labour Act (B) Minimum Wages Act
(C) Fair Trade Practices Act (D) All of the above

Q.5. Consider some of the statements regarding water shortage :
1. Acute shortage of water is common in all cities in India, during summer months.
2. The Urban Water Commission has set the standard of water requirement per person in urban area at about 335 litres per day (about 21 buckets).
3. There are great inequalities in water use. Slums have to do with less than 90 litres a day per person, while people living in luxury hotels may consume as much as 1600 litres of water per day.
4. A shortage of municipal water is often taken as the sign of failure of the citizens and not that of the government.
Which of these statements are correct :
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) Only 2

Q.6. Consider the following statements regarding tribals –
1. According to official figures, more than 85 percent of persons displaced due to mines and mining projects and tribals.
2. In the North-east their lands remain highly militarized and war-torn.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.7. The purpose of “The Scheduled Tribes and the traditional forest dwellers Act, 2006”
(i) To recognize the rights of ST and other forest dwellers to homestead, cultivable, grazing land and to non-timber forest produce.
(ii) The Act also includes conservation of forest and bio-diversity
(iii) To pay compensation to them for their acquire land
(iv) To promote the development of multi-purpose dams in forest.
Which of the above statement are correct :
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv) (D) None of these

Q.8. Read the following statements :
1. All the people who live within the territory of India, are its citizens.
2. In India, citizenship is of two types that which is gained by birth and that which is acquired by law.
Which one of the following is correct :
(A) 1 is true, 2 is false (B) 1 is false, 2 is true
(C) Both 1 and 2 are true (D) Both 1 and 2 are false

Q.9. Read the following passage regarding the powers of the government provided in Indian Constitution :
“According to the Constitution, there are three organs of the state. These are the Legislature, the Executive and the Judiciary. The Legislature refers to our elected representatives. The Executive is a smaller group of people who are responsible for implementing laws and running the government. The Judiciary refers to the system of courts in this country. Each of these organs should exercise different powers.”
Which one of the following arrangement of power is referred in the above passage :
(A) Delegation of Powers
(B) Separation of Powers
(C) Decentralisation of Powers
(D) Centralisation of powers in respective organs of the state.

Q.10. Which of the following is/are listed among the Directive Principles of State Policy :
1. Equal pay for equal work
2. Promotion of international peace and security
3. Small family norm
4. Education through mother tongue at primary level
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4



ANSWERS – Q.1. (D), Q.2. (D), Q.3. (C), Q.4. (B), Q.5. (B),
Q.6. (B), Q.7. (A), Q.8. (B), Q.9. (B), Q.10. (B)

IESO & NTSE Stage II (Social-Science) Sample Questions - IX

Q.1. A large number of animals got extinct at the end of the Cretaceous time. This extinction was caused by ________.
A) Meteorite impact; B) Tsunami;
C) Volcanism; D) A and C

Q.2. Movement of groundwater is most rapid ______________.
A) Within acquicludes
B) Beneath streams in valley bottoms
C) Where the land surface is highest
D) Where the water table is highest

Q.3. Adiabatic cooling occurs when a parcel of air
A) Rises without exchanging heat with the surroundings
B) Rises on exchanging heat with the surroundings
C) Rises from equator to poles
D) Rises from ground to mountain top

Q.4. Albedo is the fraction of
A) Greenhouse gas in the atmosphere
B) Moisture content of the atmosphere
C) Radiation reflected by the earth
D) Momentum received by the atmosphere

Q.5. Troposphere is that part of the atmosphere where temperature __________.
A) Increases with height
B) Increases with height in the day but decreases with height in the night
C) Decreases with height
D) Remains constant

Q.6. El Nino refers to ____________________.
A) Cooling of the eastern Pacific Ocean
B) Warming of the eastern Pacific Ocean
C) Warming of the western Pacific Ocean
D) Warming of the Indian Ocean

Q.7. During precipitation, the atmosphere ________.
A) Gains heat through sensible heat
B) Loses heat through sensible heat
C) Gains heat through latent heat
D) Loses heat through latent heat

Q.8. Tides in the ocean are the result of balance of force between
A) Gravitational force and centrifugal force
B) Gravitational force and centripetal force
C) Gravitational force and frictional force
D) Gravitational force and buoyancy force

Q.9. A semi-diurnal tide refers to ________________.
A) One high and one low water in a month
B) Two high and two low waters in a month
C) One high and one low water in 24 hours
D) Two high and two low waters in 24 hours

Q.10. When the ocean water is green, it contains a large amount of ___________.
A) Suspended matter
B) Phytoplankton
C) Zooplankton
D) Bacteria


ANSWERS - Q.1.(D),Q.2.(D),Q.3.(A),Q.4.(C),Q.5.(C),
Q.6.(B),Q.7.(C),Q.8.(B),Q.9.(B),Q.10.(B)

IESO & NTSE Sample Questions - VIII

Q.1. What is emery powder used as?
(A) A filler in ceramic material;
(B) For the manufacture of fine crystal glass
(C) As abrasive
(D) A mixture in paints

Q.2. A typical sedimentary rock indicating glaciation in the past is
A) Shale; B) Tillite;
C) Limestone; D) Lignite

Q.3. If a piece of rock is crushed into very fine particles, it leads to _________.
A) An increase in surface area;
B) A decrease in surface area;
C) An increase in the volume of rock;
D) A decrease in the volume of rock

Q.4. Which of the following statements about transpiration and river runoff in India is correct?
A) The amount of water that is lost through vegetation is greater than the amount of water carried away by rivers;
B) The amount of water carried away by rivers is at least three orders of magnitude higher than the amount of water that is lost through vegetation;
C) The amount in each case is approximately the same;
D) The amount of water that escapes through vegetation is insignificant compared to the amount of water carried away by rivers.

Q.5. Most tropical cyclones originate _______________.
A) between 0º and 5º north and south of the equator
B) in the centers of sub-tropical highs
C) between 10º and 20º
D) to the west of westerly winds

Q.6. Rain-shadow zone occurs on the lee (or leeward side) of a mountain because _________.
A) adiabatic warming lowers the relative humidity
B) air forced to rise is warmed by the adiabatic process
C) condensation has a drying effect upon the air
D) no water vapour remains in the descending air.

Q.7. Which of the following statements about tides is FALSE?
A) Most places on Earth experience two high and two low tides each day
B) Most places on Earth experience one high tide and one low tide each day
C) Each month there are two spring tides and two neap tides
D) The primary body that influences the tides is the Moon

Q.8. Which of the following is not a tropical storm?
A) Cyclone; B) Hurricane; C) Typhoon; D) Tornado

Q.9. A northerly wind means a __________________.
A) Wind coming from the north
B) Wind going towards the north
C) Wind in the northern hemisphere
D) Wind in northern India

Q.10. During precipitation, the atmosphere ________.
A) Gains heat through sensible heat
B) Loses heat through sensible heat
C) Gains heat through latent heat
D) Loses heat through latent heat


ANSWERS - Q.1-(A),Q.2-(B),Q.3-(A),Q.4-(A),Q.5-(C)
Q.6-(A),Q.7-(B),Q.8-(D),Q.9-(A),Q.10-(C)