MCQ of Gender, Religion & Caste

 Q.1. What is meant by ‘gender division’?

(a)  Division between rich and poor                        

(b)  Division between males and females

(c)  Division between educated and uneducated     

(d)  None of the above

Ans. (b)

Q.2. What is meant by the term ‘Feminist’?

(a)  Having the qualities considered typical of women.

(b)  A person who believes in equal rights and opportunities for women and men. 

(c)  The belief that men and women are equal.

(d)  Men who look like women.

Ans. (b)

Q.3. Which one of these does not refer to the ‘Feminist movement’?

(a)  Improving educational and career opportunities for women

(b)  Giving voting rights to the women             

(c) Training them in household jobs

(d)  Improving their political and legal status

Ans. (c)

Q.4. What is the result of political expression of gender division?

(a)  Has helped to improve women’s role in public life

(b)  Has provided a superior status to women 

(c)  The position remains the same, as it was 

(d)  None of the above

Ans. (a)

Q.5. In which of these countries, the participation of women is not very large?

(a)  Sweden                    (b) Norway                   (c) India                        (d) Finland

Ans. (c)

Q.6. Indian society is considered as

(a)  a matriarchal society                                     (b) a patriarchal society

(c)  a fraternal society                                         (d) none of these

Ans. (b)

Q.7. Which of these Acts provides that equal wages should be paid for equal work to both men and women?

(a)  Same Wages Act                                           (b) Equal Wages Act

(c)  Wages Equality Act                                      (d) Equality Wages Act

Ans. (b)

Q.8. In which of these categories of work do you think less time is spent by men?

(a)  Household and related work                        (b) Income-generating work

(c)  Sleep, self-care, reading etc.                        (d) Talking, gossiping

Ans. (a)

Q.9. The representation of women in state assemblies is less than :

(a)  2%                           (b) 5%                          (c) 6%                           (d) 3%

Ans. (b)

Q.10. To provide representation to women in Panchayats and Municipalities, the following step has been taken :

(a)  Reservation for election to half of the seats for women

(b)  Appointment of 1/3 women members

(c)  Reservation for election to 1/3 of the seats for women

(d)  None of the above

Ans. (c)

Q.11. What did Gandhiji mean when he said that religion and politics can never be separated?

(a)  Effect of Hinduism on politics is more      (b) Effect of Islam on politics is more

(c)  Need moral values in politics                      (d) None of these

Ans. (c)

Q.12. In some places in India, the child sex ratio has fallen to as low as :

(a)  927                          (b) 840                          (c) 820                          (d) 800

Ans. (d)

Q.13. According  to  some  feminist  movements,  which of these is the best way to achieve women’s well-being?

(a)  Women should stop cooperating with men (b) All women should go out for work

(c)  Women should share power                         (d) None of these

Ans. (c)

Q.14. The percentage of elected women members in the Lok Sabha has never reached even per cent of its total strength.

(a)  25%                         (b) 15%                        (c) 10%                         (d) 5%

Ans. (c)

Q.15. Partly due to the efforts of reformers and partly due to other changes, caste system in modern India has undergone great changes.

(a)  fundamental            (b) socio-economic       (c) cultural                    (d) professional

Ans. (b)

Q.16. What is leading to the breakdown of caste hierarchy?

(a)  Large-scale urbanisation                               (b) Growth of literacy and education

(c)  Occupational mobility                                  (d) All the above

Ans. (d)

Q.17. In India, seats are reserved for women in :

(a)  Lok Sabha                                                     (b) State Legislative Assemblies

(c)  Cabinets                                                         (d) Panchayati Raj bodies

Ans. (d)

Q.18. Which of these is true about the ugliest form of communalism?

(a)  Communal violence                                      (b) Riots

(c)  Massacre                                                        (d) All the above

Ans. (d)

Q.19. Which of these statements is incorrect?

(a)  There is only one-way relation between caste and politics.

(b)  Politics too influences the caste system.

(c)  New kinds of caste groups have come up in the political arena. 

(d)  None of the above.

Ans. (a)

Q.20. ........................... groups in our country have argued that most of the victims of communal riots in our country are people from religious minorities.

(a)  Trade Union            (b) Feminist                  (c) Students                   (d) Human Rights

Ans. (d)

Q.21. Which of these matters deal with the ‘Family Laws’?

(a)  Marriage and divorce    (b) Adoption             (c) Inheritance           (d) All of these

Ans. (d)

Q.22. What is meant by ‘Communal Politics’?

(a)  Participation of different communities in politics

(b)  When state power is used to establish domination of one religious group over the rest

(c)  Communist type of government

(d)  All the above

Ans. (b)

Q.23. Which of these forms can communalism take in politics?

(a)  In everyday beliefs, like religious prejudices

(b)  A quest for political dominance of one’s own religious community

(c)  Political mobilisation on religious lines

(d)  All the above

Ans. (d)

Q.24. Which of these countries has an official state religion?

(a)  Sri Lanka                (b) Pakistan                  (c) England                   (d) All of these

Ans. (d)

Q.25. In India, the official religion of the state is :

(a)  Hinduism                 (b) Islam                       (c) Christianity              (d) None

Ans. (d)

Q.26. Laws concerning family matters such as marriage, divorce, adoption etc. are known as: 

(a)  Family laws        (b) Constitutional Laws   (c) Criminal Laws        (d) Civil Laws

Ans. (a)

Q.27. In which system of elected bodies about one-third seats are reserved for women? 

(a)  Panchayats and Municipals                          (b) Lok Sabha

(c)  State Assemblies                                           (d) None of these

Ans. (a)

Q.28. A system that values men more and gives them power over women is called?

(a)  Feminist                  (b) Socialist                  (c) Patriarchy                (d) Communist

Ans. (c)

Q.29. What does caste hierarchy mean?                                                             

(a)  A shift from rural areas to urban areas

(b)  Shift from one occupation to another

(c)  A ladder-like formation in which all caste groups are placed from the highest to the lowest

(d)  None of these

Ans. (c)

Q.30. Who  among  the  following  said  that  religion  can  never  be  separated  from  politics? 

(a)  Acharya Vinobha Bhave                               (b) Mahatma Gandhi

(c)  Sarojini Naidu                                               (d) Rajendra Prasad

Ans. (b)

Q.31. Which of the following statement about India as a secular state is incorrect?

(a)  Allows freedom to practice any religion

(b)  There is no official religion

(c)  Prohibits discrimination on religious grounds

(d)  It reserves seats for religious minorities

Ans. (d)

Q.32. A person who does not discriminate others on the basis of religious beliefs is called? 

(a)  Communalist           (b) Secular                    (c) Casteist                    (d) Feminist

Ans. (b)

Q.33. India is a secular state because :                                                                       

(a)  It allows freedom to practise any religion         (b) There is no official religion

(c)  It prohibits discrimination on religious grounds (d) All the above

Ans. (d)

Q.34. On which of the following ideas is communal politics based?                         

(a)  One religion is considered superior than the others

(b)  Creating a vote bank of the basis on religion

(c)  Parties promote religious stereotypes          (d) All the above

Ans. (d)

Q.35. In which one of the following countries the participation of women in public life is very

high?

(a)  India (b) Sweden (c) Bangladesh (d) Pakistan

Ans. (b)

Q.36. Which of the following divisions is unique to India?                            

(a)  Gender division                                             (b) Caste division

(c)  Economic division                                        (d) Religious division

Ans. (b)

Q.12. Which one of the following is the literacy rate among women in India according to the census of 2001?                                                                                                       

 (a)  50%                         (b) 76%                        (c) 28%                         (d) 54%

Ans. (d)

Q.37. Which one of the following is not a cause of communalism?              

(a)  Religion is taken as the basis of nation

(b)  When one religion is discriminated against other

(c)  State has no official religion

(d)  Demands of one religious group are formed in opposition to another

Ans. (c)

Q.38. Which one of the following statements depicts Gandhiji’s views on religion and politics? 

(a)  Politics should be guided by one religion only

(b)  Religion should be ahead of politics

(c)  Politics should be guided by ethics drawn from religion

(d)  None of the above

Ans. (b)

Q.39. Which of the following is correct for partiarchal society?                    

(a)  Women dominated society                           (b) Male-dominated society

(c)  Educated society                                           (d) Cultured society

Ans. (b)

Q.40. Gender division usually means                                                                    

(a)  biological difference between men and women

(b)  unequal roles assigned by the society to men and women

(c)  unequal child sex ratio

(d)  absence of voting rights for women

Ans. (b)

Q.41. A man or woman who believes in equal rights and opportunities for women is a

(a)  Communist              (b) Socialist                  (c) Feminist                  (d) Communalist

Ans. (c)

Q.42. What is the percentage of literacy rate among men in India?                       

(a)  54                            (b) 58                            (c) 62                            (d) 76

Ans. (d)

Q.43. In which of the following countries the very participation of women in public life is very low?

(a)  Sweden (b) Denmark (c) South Africa (d) Norway

Ans. (c)

Q.44. Who among the following is a feminist?                                                              

(a)  Some one who does not believe in equal rights and opportunities for women and men 

(b)  Some one who believes in equal rights and opportunities for women and men

(c)  Some one who believes in secularism

(d)  None of the above

Ans. (b)

Q.45. In which of the following countries? The participation of women in public life is very hight?

(a)  Scandinavian countries                                 (b) African countries

(c)  Asian countries                                             (d) All the above

Ans. (a)

Q.46. Which one of the following statements is the opinion of Mahatma Gandhi?

(a)  The religion can be separated from politics

(b)  The religion can never be separated from politics

(c)  There is no relationship between religion and politics

(d)  None of the above

Ans. (b)

Q.47. ‘Feminist movements’ are aimed at

(a)  Liberty                     (b) Equality (c) Participation (d) Power

Ans. (b)

Q.48. According to 2011 census what was the sex ratio in India?                            

(a)  1000 males 950 females                               (b) 1000 males 850 females

(c)  1000 males 919 females                               (d) 1000 males 922 females

Ans. (c)

Q.49. Which type of state is India?

(a)  Democratic              (b) Secular (c) Welfare (d) All the above

Ans. (d)

Q.50. Communalism refers to a division based on                                                      

(a)  Religion                                                         (b) Caste

(c)  Gender                                                           (d) Socio-economic status

Ans. (a)

More MCQ, Assertion & Reasoning Questions

MCQ of Mineral & Energy Resources

 Q.1. Study about which of the characteristics of minerals is not a concern of geographers?

(a)  Minerals as part of the earth’s crust for better understanding of landforms.

(b)  Distribution of minerals

(c)  Economic  activities  associated  with minerals

(d)  Formation,  age  and  physical  and chemical composition of minerals

Ans. (d)

Q.2. Which of the following rocks consists of a single mineral?

(a)  Granite                    (b) Basalt          (c)  Limestone                (d) Sandstone

Ans. (c)

Q.3. Metals like  gold, silver and platinum are known as which of the following? 

(a)  Ferrous minerals       (b)  Non-ferrous minerals 

(c)  Non-metallic minerals (d)  Precious minerals

Ans. (d)

Q.4. Minerals formed from solidification of molten matter in the crack, crevices, faults or joints are found in which types of rocks?

(a)  Stratified rocks

(b)  Igneous and metamorphic rocks

(c)  Sedimentary rocks

(d)  None of the above

Ans. (b)

Q.5. Which of the following is a major metallic mineral obtained from veins and lodes?

(a)  Tin                (b) Iron           (c)  Manganese              (d) Gold

Ans. (a)

Q.6. Minerals are deposited and accumulated in strata of which of the following rocks?

(a)  Sedimentary rocks             (b)  Metamorphic rocks

(c)  Igneous rocks                     (d)  None of the above

Ans. (a)

Q.7. Which  of  the  following  sedimentary minerals is formed as a result of evaporation, especially in arid regions? 

(a)  Coal                         (b) Potash salt           (c)  Iron ore                   (d) Sulphur

Ans. (b)

Q.8. Which of the following regions of India contain most of the reserves of coal, metallic minerals, mica and many other non-metallic minerals?

(a)  The Himalayas

(b)  Alluvial plains of North India

(c)  Rock system of peninsula in Rajasthan

(d)  Peninsular plateau region

Ans. (d)

Q.9. Which of the following regions of India is almost devoid of economic minerals? 

(a)  The Himalayan belt

(b)  The alluvial plains of North India

(c)  The Thar desert

(d)  The Peninsular plateau

Ans. (b)

Q.10. Which  of  the  following  is  the  finest quality of iron ore with magnetic qualities ?

(a)  Magnetite                (b) Haematite       (c)  Siderite                    (d) Limonite

Ans. (a)

Q.11. Which one of the following mineral ores is formed by decomposition of rocks, leaving a residual mass of weathered material?

(a)  Coal                         (b) Bauxite         (c)  Gold                        (d) Zinc

Ans. (b)

Q.12. Due to which of the following reasons is the Bailadila range in the Bastar district of Chhattisgarh   famous?

(a)  It is the highest range in Central India

(b)  Very high grade haematite variety of iron ore is found here

(c)  Very  high  grade  coal  deposits  are found here

(d)  It is the largest iron ore deposit in the world

Ans. (b)

Q.13. Which of the following minerals is an important raw material in the iron and steel industry apart from iron ?

(a)  Mica                        (b) Aluminium      (c)  Gypsum                   (d) Manganese

Ans. (d)

Q.14. India’s  reserves  and  production  of which of the following types of minerals is not very satisfactory?

(a)  Ferrous Minerals                          (b)  Non-Ferrous Minerals

(c)  Energy Minerals                           (d)  None of the above

Ans. (b)

Q.15. India  is  critically  deficient  in  the reserve and production of which of the following minerals?

(a)  Iron ore                   (b) Manganese        (c)  Copper                     (d) Coal

Ans. (c)

Q.16. Koderma in Jharkhand is the leading producer of which one of the following minerals?

(a)  Bauxite                    (b) Mica               (c)  Iron ore                   (d) Copper

Ans. (b)

Q.17. Which  of  the  following  minerals  is indispensable for electric and electronic industries?

(a)  Iron                          (b) Nickel             (c)  Manganese              (d) Mica

Ans. (d)

Q.18. To which of the following categories of resources, do minerals belong ?

(a)  Renewable and replenishable               (b)  Flow

(c)  Non-renewable and finite                     (d)  None of the above

Ans. (c)

Q.19. Which  of  the  following  is  a  non- commercial source of energy widely used in rural areas?

(a)  Coal                         (b) Firewood

(c)  Natural gas              (d) Electricity

Ans. (b)

Q.20. Which of the following energy sources are not the conventional sources of energy?

(a)  Firewood, cattle dung cake

(b)  Atomic energy, biogas, solar energy

(c)  Coal, petroleum, natural gas

(d)  Hydel and thermal electricity

Ans. (b)

Q.21. Which  of  the  following  is  a  fuel mineral?

(a)  Hydro-electricity     (b) Solar power

(c)  Thorium                  (d) Biogas

Ans. (c)

Q.22. Which  of  the  following  is  the  most abundantly available fossil fuel in India?

(a)  Petroleum                (b) Coal

(c)  Firewood                 (d) Biogas

Ans. (b)

Q.23. Which of the following is the geological age  of  coal found  in  north-eastern India?

(a)  Jurassic               (b) Gondwana

(c)  Tertiary               (d) Pre-Cambrian

Ans. (c)

Q.24. Which of the following energy sources is also termed as mineral oil or crude oil?

(a)  Coal                         (b) Petroleum

(c)  Biogas                     (d) Natural gas

Q.25. Which  of  the  following  industries  are the key users of natural gas?

(a)  Cotton and jute textiles

(b)  The power and fertiliser industries

(c)  Iron and steel industry

(d)  All the above

Ans. (b)

Q.26. Petroleum was first drilled in which of the following oilfields of India ? 

(a)  Ankaleshwar           (b) Digboi (c)  Mumbai High         (d) Kalol

Ans. (b)

Q.27. Per Capita consumption of which of the following is considered as an index of the development?

(a)  Electricity           (b) Coal

(c)  Petroleum           (d) Atomic minerals

Ans. (a)

Q.28. Which  of  the  following  uses  non- renewable fossil fuels for generation of electricity?

(a) Hydro-electricity projects          (b)  Thermal power stations

(c)  Geothermal energy stations       (d)  Nuclear power plants

Ans. (b)

Q.29. Which of the following is considered to be an environment friendly fuel?

(a) Peat        (b) coal        (c) petroleum        (d) natural gas

Ans. (d)      

Q.30. Which of the following includes non-ferrous metals?

(a)  Iron and manganese

(b)  Steel and iron ore

(c)  Haematite and magnetite

(d)  Copper and bauxite

Ans. (d)

Q.31. Which  one  of  the  following  is  an essential feature of Mica?    

(a)  It is a metallic mineral made up of a series of plates

(b)  It  can  be  clear,  black,  green,  red, yellow or brown.

(c)  It is not used in electric and electronic industry.

(d)  It  cannot  be  easily  split  into  thin sheets

Ans. (b)

Q.32. Where is an experimental geo-thermal energy project located in India ?

(a)  Gulf of Kuchch - Gujarat

(b)  Puga valley - Ladakh

(c)  Ganga valley - Himachal Pradesh

(d)  Nagarcoil - Tamil Nadu

Ans. (b)

Q.33. Which  one  of  the  following  does  not influence the location of industries ?

(a)  Availability  of  raw  material  and electricity.

(b)  Availability of markets and capital. 

(c)  Availability  of  raw  material  and labour.

(d)  Availability  of  educational  and medical services.

Ans. (d)

Q.34. Which one of the following is not true regarding wind power in India?

(a)  The  largest  wind  farm  cluster  is located in Tamil Nadu.

(b)  Jaisalmer is well known for effective use of wind energy in our country.

(c)  Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka have important wind farms.

(d)  Andaman  Nicobar  islands  have important wind farms.

Ans. (d)

Q.35. Which one of the following is not true regarding the importance of manufacturing industries ?  (a)  They generate jobs in the secondary and tertiary sectors.

(b)  Export of manufactured goods brings in forgein exchange.

(c) Manufacturing industries encourage trade and commerce.

(d)  The economic strength of a country is measured in terms of the raw material it possesses.

Ans. (d)

Q.36. Which one of the following minerals is NOT obtained from the veins and lodes?

 (a)  Tin                           (b) Zinc

(c)  Lead                        (d) Gypsum

Ans. (d)

Q.37. Which  one  of  the  following  non- conventional sources of energy is harnessed in the Parvati Valley near Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh

(a)  Tidal Energy          (b)  Geothermal Energy

(c)  Wind Energy         (d)  Solar Energy

Ans. (b)

Q.38. Which  one  of  the  following  factors  is responsible for the sugar mills to shift and concentrate in the southern and western states of India ?    

(a)  Sugarcane is bulky raw material.

(b) The sucrose content reduces with distance.

(c)  The cane produced has higher sucrose content.

(d)  The cooperative are not successful.

Ans. (c)

Q.39. The larger occurrences of minerals of igneous and metamorphic rocks are called :                          (a)  Veins                       (b) Lodes        (c)  Beds                        (d) Layers

Ans. (b)

Q.40. The  largest  solar  plant  of  India  is located at :                             

(a)  Madhapur                (b) Nagarcoil    (c)  Madurai                   (d) Manikaran

Ans. (a)

Q.41. Which mineral belongs to the category of non-ferrous minerals?      

(a)  Iron ore                   (b) Manganese

(c)  Cobalt                      (d) Copper

Ans. (d)

Q.42. Which form of coal has a low carbon and high moisture contents and low heating capacity ?          (a)  Peat                          (b) Lignite

(c)  Anthracite                (d) Bituminous

Ans. (a)

Q.43. The largest manganese producing state of India is -                         

(a)  Orissa                (b)   Madhya Pradesh (c)  Karnataka         (d)   Kerala

Ans. (a)

Q.44. Which  one  of  the  following  minerals belongs to a category which is different from others ?      (a)  Mica                        (b) Gold                     (c)  Copper                     (d) Iron

Ans. (b)

Q.45. The highest quality of hard coal is : 

(a)  Lignite                     (b) Bituminous        (c)  Peat                          (d) Anthracite

Ans. (d)

Q.46. Which  one  of  the  following  is  largely derived from ocean water?  

(a)  Bauxite                    (b) Magnesium (c)  Gold                        (d) Mica

Ans. (b)

Q.47. Which  one  of  the  following  minerals belongs to the category of ferrous minerals ?                    (a)  Mica                        (b) Silver         (c)  Bauxite                    (d) Manganese

Ans. (d)

Q.48. The best quality of iron ore is : 

(a)  Magnetite                (b) Pyrite       (c)  Hematite                  (d) Siderite

Ans. (a)

Q.49. Minerals are deposited and accumulated in the horizontal strata of which of the following rocks ?

(a)  Sedimentary rocks        (b)  Igneous rocks

(c)  Metamorphic rocks      (d)  None of the above

Ans. (a)

Q.50. Which one of the following minerals is largely derived from Ocean Waters ?

(a)  Bromine                  (b) Silver    (c)  Platinum                  (d) Bauxite

Ans. (a)

Q.51. In which state of India are the Khetri Copper mines situated ?      

(a)  Punjab                (b) Jharkhand

(c)  Rajasthan            (d) Madhya Pradesh

Ans. (c)

Q.52. Which one of the following minerals is largely derived from ‘placer deposits’ ? 

(a)  Magnesium              (b) Gold    (c)  Iron ore                   (d) Bromine

Ans. (b)

Q.53. In  which  state  of  India  the  Balaghat Copper Mines are situated?  

(a)  Punjab                     (b) Kerala

(c)  Madhya Pradesh     (d) West Bengal

Ans. (c)

Q.54. Which one of the following states, is the largest producer of copper in India ?

(a)  Orissa                      (b) Karnataka       (c)  Madhya Pradesh     (d) Gujarat

Ans. (c)

Q.55. In which one of the following states the largest wind farm cluster is located ?

(a)  Gujarat                    (b) Kerala     (c)  Rajasthan                 (d) Tamil Nadu

Ans. (d)

Q.56. Which of the following is non-metallic mineral? 

(a)  Iron ore                   (b) Copper

(c)  Bauxite                    (d) Lime stone

Ans. (d)

Q.57. Which of the following is the oldest oil producing state of India ?

(a)  Gujarat       (b)  Madhya Pradesh     (c)  Assam     (d)  Andaman Nicobar island

Ans. (c)

Q.58. Which one of the following minerals is contained in the monazite sands ?

(a)  Oil                           (b) Uranium        (c)  Thorium                  (d) Coal

Ans. (c)

Q.59. Which one of the following minerals is formed by decomposition of rocks, leaving  a  residual  mass  of  weathered material ?  

(a)Coal        (b) Gold (c) Bauxite   (d) Zinc    

Ans. (c)                     

Q.60. In which of the following iron ore belt Kudremukh mines are located ?

(a)  Orissa-Jharkhand belt

(b)  Maharashtra-Goa belt

(c)  Durg-Baster-Chandrapur belt

(d)  Bellary-Chitradiga-Chikmaglur - Tumkur belt

Ans. (d)

Q.61. Electricity generated by burning fossil- fuels is called :                   

 (a)  Hydro-electricity

(b)  Tidal electricity

(c)  Thermal electricity

(d)  Nuclear energy

Ans. (c)

Q.62. Koderma - Gaya - Hazaribagh belt is the  leading  producer of  which  one  of the following minerals ?     

(a)  Bauxite                    (b) Mica

(c)  Iron Ore                  (d) Copper

Ans. (b)

Q.63. Which one of the following types of coal is the most popular for commercial use? 

(a)  Bituminous      (b) Anthracite

(c)  Lignite             (d) None of the above

Ans. (a)

Q.64. Which  one  of  the  following  non- conventional sources of energy is harnessed near Manikarn in Himachal Pradesh ? 

(a) Solar energy        (b) Wind energy        (c) Tidal energy        (d) Geo thermal energy

Ans. (d)                          

Q.65. India is critically deficient in which of the following minerals reserves ?

(a)  Mica                        (b) Copper

(c)  Bauxite                    (d) Manganese

Ans. (b)

Q.66. Which one of the following states is the largest producer of bauxite? 

(a)  Rajasthan       (b)  Madhya Pradesh

(c)  Orissa            (d)  Gujarat

Ans. (c)

More MCQ, Assertion & Reasoning Questions

MCQ of Print Culture and the Modern World

 Q.1. The earliest kind of print technology was developed in :

(a)  Japan and Korea                                           (b) India, Japan and Korea

(c)  China, Japan and Korea                               (d) India, China and Arabia

Ans. (c)

Q.2. The uses of print diversified in urban China by the 17th century. Which of the following statements support the above statement?

(a)  Print was no longer used by scholar-officials only

(b)  Merchants used print in their everyday life and trade information

(c)  Reading became a leisure activity

(d)  All the above

Ans. (d)

Q.3. When and by whom was handprinting technology brought to Japan?

(a)  The Arab travellers to Japan in the 8th century

(b)  Buddhist missionaries from China around AD 768-770 (c)  Chinese silk merchants in the 6th century

(d)  The Egyptians in the 8th century

Ans. (b)

Q.4. Which statement given below is not an explanation of the art form called ‘Ukiyo’?

(a)  ‘Ukiyo’ means pictures of the floating world or depiction

(b)  Artists first draw the themes on paper, then a skilled wood-carver pastes the drawing on a wooden block

(c)  He then carves a printing block to reproduce the painter’s lines

(d)  The original drawing is then preserved in the libraries

Ans. (d)

Q.5. When and how did the Chinese start handprinting?

(a)  From the 6th century onwards, the Chinese printed by rubbing paper

(b)  From AD 594 onwards, books in China were printed by rubbing paper against the inked surface of wooden blocks

(c)  From the 6th century onwards, by printing on this porous sheet

(d)  All the above

Ans. (b)

Q.6. China was, for a long time, the major producer of printed material, because :

(a)  Civil service examinations were held regularly in China to recruit people to civil services

(b)  Under the sponsorship of the imperial state, textbooks for these examinations were printed in vast numbers

(c)  The number of examination candidates kept on increasing from the 16th century, so did the print material

(d)  All the above

Ans. (d)

Q.7. The term ‘Calligraph’ means :

(a)  The art of beautiful printing                        (b) The art of beautiful and stylised writing

(c)  The art of beautiful handprinting                (d) The art of printing an ‘accordion book’

Ans. (b)

Q.8. Who was Kitagawa Utamaro and why is he famous?

(a)  A famous Japanese artist, famous for his prints

(b)  A Japanese artist, famous for his art form ‘Ukiyo’

(c)  A Japanese artist who influenced European artists like Manet, Monet and Van Gogh

(d)  A Japanese artist born in Edo in 1753, famous for his contribution to an art form called

‘Ukiyo’ which influenced European artists like Manet, Monet and Van Gogh

Ans. (d)

Q.9. The production of manuscripts became possible in Europe because :

(a)  The Europeans discovered paper

(b)  Just like silk and spices, paper reached Europe via the Arab world

(c)  Chinese paper reached Europe in the 11th century via the silk route, like silk and spices

(d)  All the above

Ans. (c)

Q.10. The first to use wood-block printing in Europe were :

(a)  The French              (b) The Spaniards        (c) The Italians             (d) The Germans

Ans. (b)

Q.11. The term ‘Compositor’ means :

(a)  A person who composes poems

(b)  A person who composes lyrics and songs for a play

(c)  A person who composes music

(d)  A person who composes the text for printing

Ans. (d)

Q.12. The term ‘Galley’ refers to

(a)  A corridor or long passage where family portraits are hung

(b)  A metal frame in which types are laid and the text composed

(c)  A long, low built ship with one deck, propelled by oars and sails

(d)  A scarecrow

Ans. (b)

Q.13. The Print Revolution transformed the lives of people by :

(a)  Changing  their  relationship  to  information  and  knowledge;  with  institutions  and authorities

(b)  By producing cheaper books and producing them at a fast rate

(c)  Influencing popular perceptions and opening new way of looking at things

(d)  Both (b) and (c)

Ans. (d)

Q.14. Taverns were :

(a)  Restaurants, where people could eat, drink and be merry

(b)  Cheap hotels in towns

(c)  Places where people gathered to drink alcohol, to be served food, to meet friends and exchange views

(d)  Small buildings in a village for a public meeting

Ans. (c)

Q.15. Protestant Reformation was :

(a)  A 16th century movement to reform the Catholic Church dominated by Rome

(b)  A challenge to the authority of Rome

(c)  A new religion started by Martin Luther

(d)  A movement which started anti-Catholic Christianity

Ans. (a)

Q.16. ‘Tremble,  therefore,  tyrants  of  the  world! Tremble  before  the  virtual  writer.’ Whose words are these and what warning is given through them?

(a)  Mercier, a French novelist of 18th century, who believed that printing press is so powerful that it would sweep despotism away

(b)  Louise Sebastien Mercier, a novelist of the 18th century England, who gave this warning to despots

(c)  Mercier, an American novelist of the 18th century, who believed in the power of print and warned against despotism

(d)  A French novelist Mercier (19th century), who believed in the power of print

Ans. (a)

Q.17. Print culture, according to many historians, made people critical and rational because :

(a)  Enlightened thinkers argued for the rule of reason rather than custom, judging everything with reasons

(b)  The thinkers attacked sacred authority of the Church and despotism of the State

(c)  People who read the ideas of Voltaire and Rousseau saw the world through different eyes

(d)  All of these

Ans. (d)

Q.18. There was a virtual reading mania in European countries at the end of the 18th century because :

(a)  People wanted to read books and printers produced them in increasing numbers

(b)  Churches set up schools in villages carrying literacy to peasants and artisans

(c)  Literacy rates went up in Europe as 60 to 80 percent

(d)  There was a variety in reading material, so reading became popular

Ans. (b)

Q.19. New forms of popular literature, targeting new audience at the end of the 18th century, were :

(a)  Romances, histories, almanacs, ballads and folktales for entertainment

(b)  Newspapers and journals combining current affairs (wars and trade) with entertainment

(c)  Ideas of scientists and philosophers included in popular literature

(d)  All the above

Ans. (d)

Q.20. Which of the following statements does not support the view of some historians that Print

Culture was the basis for the French Revolution?

(a)  Print culture led to the spread of ideas of enlightened thinkers and encouraged questioning, critical reasoning and rule of reason rather than tradition

(b)  It led to a public culture of debate, discussion, new ideas of social revolution

(c)  Print did not directly shape the people’s minds but opened up the possibility of thinking differently

(d)  It aroused hostility against monarchy, its mentality and mocked it

Ans. (c)

Q.21. Children became an important category of readers in the 19th century, mainly because :

(a)  Primary  education  became  compulsory  and  production  of  school  textbooks  became essential for publishing industry

(b)  A children’s press devoted to literature for children was set up in France in 1857 (c)  Grimm Brothers in Germany published fairytales for children in 1812

(d)  Anything vulgar was not published in children’s books

Ans. (a)

Q.22. The contribution of Grimm Brothers of Germany to children’s literature was :

(a)  Publishing stories for them

(b)  Spending years on compiling traditional folktales gathered from peasants, editing and publishing them as a collection in 1812

(c)  Having a new shape to rural folktales

(d)  All the above

Ans. (b)

Q.23. The role of lending libraries in England in the 19th century was :

(a)  Promoting reading among the working-class people

(b)  Educating white collar workers, artisans and lower middle-class people

(c)  Encouraging  self-improvement,  self-expression  and  encouraging  the  working  class  to write autobiographies

(d)  Both (b) and (c)

Ans. (d)

Q.24. Printers and publishers developed new strategies to sell their products. Which of the following is not an innovation of the 20th century?

(a)  Cheap paperback editions were printed

(b)  The dust cover or the book jacket was an innovation

(c)  Important novels were serialised, which led to a new way of writing novels

(d)  Popular works were sold in England in cheap series called the shilling series

Ans. (c)

Q.25. Through the 19th century, series of innovations in printing technology were :

(a)  Richard M. Hoe of New York perfected power-driven cylindrical press capable of printing

8,000 sheets per hour

(b)  Six colours at a time could be printed by the offset press

(c)  Methods of feeding paper improved, quality of plates became better, automatic paper reels and photoelectric controls of colour register were introduced

(d)  Both (a) and (b)

Ans. (d)

Q.26. In which year, printing in Hindi began and what was its main concern?

(a)  Hindi printing began from the 1870s, a large segment was devoted to women’s education, widow remarriage and the national movement

(b)  Hindi printing began from the 1870s and their main concern was women-related issues

(c)  Hindi printing began from 1900 and was devoted to education of women

(d)  Printing in Hindi began in the early 20th century and its main concern was religious reform

Ans. (a)

Q.27. By the end of the 19th century, the new culture taking shape in India was :

(a)  A visual culture with cheap prints and calendars, so that even the poor could decorate the walls of their homes with them

(b)  Visible  images  reproduced  in  multiple  copies  which  shaped  popular  ideas  about modernity, tradition, religion, politics, society and culture

(c)  Painters producing images for mass circulation

(d)  Ravi Varma starting a new visual culture

Ans. (b)

Q.28. The Bengal Gazette was :

(a)  A weekly magazine, first to be edited by an Indian

(b)  A weekly English magazine edited by James Hickey from 1780, described as a commercial paper open to all, influenced by none

(c)  First English magazine brought out by Raja Rammohun Roy

(d)  A weekly magazine, edited by James Hickey from 1780 in English

Ans. (b)

Q.29. The book, ‘Chote Aur Bade Ka Sawal’ talked about                                      

(a)  the link between caste and class exploitation

(b)  the injustices of the caste system 

(c)  restrictions on the vernacular press (d)  ill treatment of widows

Ans. (a)

Q.30. Which one among the following is an ancient name of Tokyo?                    

(a)  Osaka                      (b) Nagano                   (c) Edo                          (d) Gifu

Ans. (c)

Q.31. Who wrote about the injustices of the caste system in ‘Gulamgiri’?  

(a)  Raja Rammohan Roy                                    (b) Jyotiba Phule

(c)  Bal Gangadhar Tilak                                     (d) Bankim Chandra

Ans. (b)

Q.32. Who among following invented the first printing press in Europe?  

(a)  Macro Polo                                                    (b) Kitagawa Utamaro

(c)  Johann Gutenberg                                         (d) Erasmus

Ans. (c)

Q.33. Which of the following was the first book printed by Gutenberg?    

(a)  The Diamond Sutra   (b)  Chapbook           (c) Grimms’ fairytales    (d)  The Bible

Ans. (d)

Q.34. Which of the following is the correct meaning of ‘Biliotheque Bleue’?        

(a)  An author                                                      (b) Low price small books

(c)  Monuments                                                    (d) None of these

Ans. (b)

Q.35. The printing press was first introduced in India by which one of the following?

(a)  East India Company officials                       (b) Indian reformers

(c)  Protuguese missionaries                                (d) Arabic traders

Ans. (c)

Q.36. Which religious reformer was responsible for the Protestant Reformation?

(a)  Martin Luther         (b) George Elliot          (c) Maxim Gorky    (d)  Martin Luther King

Ans. (a)

Q.37. Which of the following is an Enlightened thinker whose writings are said to have created conditions for a revolution in France?                                                     

 (a)  Louise Sebastian Mercier                             (b) Rousseau

(c)  Mennochio                                                     (d) Gutenberg

Ans. (b)

Q.38. Which of the following was a book showing links between caste and class exploitation? 

(a)  Ghulamgiri                                                     (b) Amar Jiban

(c)  Istri Dharm Vichar                                        (d) Chhote Aur Bade Ka Sawal

Ans. (d)

Q.39. What were low priced small books printed on poor quality paper and bound in cheap blue covers called in France?                                                                              

(a)  Chapbooks              (b) Almanacs                (c) Bibliotheque Bleue (d) Ballads

Ans. (c)

Q.40. Paperback editions of books were introducted during                                    

(a)  the First World War                                      (b) the Second World War

(c)  the Russian Revolution                                (d) the onset of the Great Depression

Ans. (d)

Q.41. The circulation of handwritten manuscripts remained limited because :

(a)  they were fragile and awkward to handle      (b) they could not be carried around

(c)  they could not be read easily                          (d) all the above

Ans. (d)

Q.42. In England books carried by petty pedlars and sold for a penny were known as : 

(a)  Shilling series         (b) Almanacs                (c) Chapbooks              (d) Novels

Ans. (c)

Q.43. Which of the following books reflects the plight of the ‘lower castes’ and poor in India? 

(a)  Gulamagiri                                                     (b) Chhote Aur Bade Ka Sawal

(c)  Sachchi Kavitayen                                        (d) All the abvoe

Ans. (d)

Q.44. The Vernacular Press Act of 1878 was modelled on :                            

(a)  Irish Press Laws                                           (b) American Press Laws

(c)  Chinese Press Laws                                      (d) German Press Laws

Ans. (a)

Q.45. Which of the following reading material were especially for women?

(a)  Chap books                                                   (b) Penny magazines

(c)  Grimm’s Fairytales                                       (d) The Bible

Ans. (b)

Q.46. “Printing is the ultimate gift of God and the greatest one.” Who spoke these words? , 

(a)  Johann Gutenberg                                         (b) New Comen

(c)  Mahatma Gandhi                                           (d) Martin Luther

Ans. (d)

Q.47. Who developed the first printing press in the 1430s?                           

(a)  Marcopolo                                                     (b) Johann Gutenberg

(c)  James Watt                                                    (d) None of the above

Ans. (b)

Q.48. Choose the name of the oldest printed book of Japan.                          

(a)  Diamond Sutra        (b) Bible                       (c) Ukiyo                       (d) Koran

Ans. (a)

Q.49. In  which  among  the  following  countries  was  the  earliest  kind  of  print  technology developed?

(a)  India                        (b) England                   (c) France                      (d) China

Ans. (d)

Q.50. Which of the following statement is true in the light of Vernacular Press Act 1878? 

(a)  It gave freedom to Vernacular press

(b)  It gave financial assistance to Vernacular press

(c)  It provided rights to government to censor reports and editorials in the Vernacular press

(d)  None of the above

Ans. (c)

Q.51. Who among following introduced hand printing technology in Japan? 

(a)  Buddhist Missionaries from India               (b) Buddhist Missionaries from Japan

(c)  Buddhist Missionaries from China              (d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

Q.52. Which one of the following statements is true?                                      

(a)  A children press, devoted to literature for children alone, was set up in France in 1757 

(b)  Penny magazines were especially meant for men

(c)  Lending libraries had been in existence from the seventeenth century

(d)  None of the above

Ans. (c)

Q.53. When did the printing press first came to Goa with Portuguese missionaries?

(a)  Mid-eighteenth century                                 (b) Mid-seventeenth century

(c)  Mid-sixteenth century                                   (d) Mid-fifteenth century

Ans. (c)

Q.54. Who started to edit the Bengal Gazette weekly in 1780.                               

(a)  James Augustus Hickey                                (b) Richard M Hoe

(c)  Bal Gangadhar Tilak                                     (d) None of the above

Ans. (a)

Q.55. Who among the following was not a women novelist?                                    

(a)  Jane Austen             (b) Bront’e Sisters       (c) George Eliot        (d) None of the above

Ans. (d)

Q.56. Who among the following did not write about the caste system?                 

(a)  E. V.. Ramaswamy Naicker                         (b) Ram Chaddha

(c)  B. R. Ambedkar                                            (d) Jyotiba Phule

Ans. (b)

Q.57. Who among the following brought the technology of wood block printing to Europe? 

(a)  Johann Gutenberg   (b) Marco Polo            (c) Richard M Hoe    (d) None of the above

Ans. (b)

Q.58. Who among the following agreed to revise Press Laws?                       

(a)  Lord Cornwallis                                            (b) Lord Dalhousie

(c)  Governor General Bentinck                         (d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

Q.59. Who wrote her autobiography ‘Amar Jiban’ published in 1876?        

(a)  Tara Bai Shinde                                            (b) Rash Sundari Devi

(c)  Pandita Rama Bai                                         (d) Kailashbashini Devi

Ans. (b)

Q.60. Which one among the following is an autobiography of Rashsundari Devi?

(a)  Amar Jiban             (b) Amar Jyoti             (c) Amar Jawan            (d) Amar Zindagi

Ans. (a)

Q.61. Lending libraries came into existence in the :                                                  

(a)  17th Century           (b) 18th Century          (c) 19th Century           (d) 20th Century

Ans. (c)

Q.62. Who among the following perfected the power drivers cylindrical press?   

(a)  James Watt              (b) Newcomen              (c) George Eliot           (d) Richard M Hoe

Ans. (d)

Q.63. Who was against the Catholic Church?

(a)  Martin Luther         (b) Gutenberg (c) Jaidev (d) John Augustine

Ans. (a)

Q.64. The first weekly paper published in India was                                                

(a)  Bombay Samachar                                        (b) Bengal Gazette

(c)  Shamsul Akbar                                              (d) Samachar Chandika

Ans. (b)

Q.65. Who was Martin Luther?                                                                                    

(a)  Religious reformer of Germany                   (b) Religious reformer of France

(c)  Religious reformer of Austria                      (d) Religious reformer of Holland

Ans. (a)

MCQ of Money & Credit

 Q.1. System of exchanging goods for goods is called :

(a)  monetary system          (b)  credit system

(c)  barter system                (d)  exchange system

Ans. (c)

Q.2. Money

(a)  eliminates  double-coincidence  of wants

(b)  acts as a common measure of value

(c)  acts   as   a   standard   of   deferred payments

(d)  all the above

Ans. (d)

Q.3. At  present  which  form  of  money  is increasingly used apart from paper money?

(a)  Commodity money            (b)  Metallic money 

(c)  Plastic money                    (d)  All the above

Ans. (c)

Q.4. What are the modern forms of money?

(a)  Currency                (b)  Plastic money

(c)  Demand deposits  (d) All the above

Ans. (d)

Q.5. Terms of credit are with respect to :

(a)  interest rate        (b) collateral

(c)  documentation    (d) all the above

Ans. (d)

Q.6. Credit or loan refers to an agreement between :

(a)  lender and borrower              (b)  consumer and producer

(c)  government and tax payer     (d)  all the above

Ans. (c)

Q.7. The  formal  sector  meets  only  about _______  of  the  credit  needs  of  rural people :

(a)  25%                    (b) 52%         (c)  75%                    (d) 15%

Ans. (b)

Q.8. The part of the total deposits which a bank keeps with itself in cash is

(a)  zero                               (b)  a small proportion 

(c)  a big proportion            (d)  100 percent

Ans. (b)

Q.9. An  asset  that  the  borrower uses  as  a repayment guarantee to a lender is termed as a :

(a)  deposit                (b) collateral

(c)  advance              (d) all the above

Ans. (b)

Q.10. Currency is issued in India by :

(a)  commercial banks                   (b)  regional rural banks 

(c)  nationalised banks                   (d)  Reserve Bank of India

Ans. (d)

Q.11. Who supervises the credit activities of lenders in the informal sector?

(a)  Central Bank of India            (b)  Commercial banks

(c)  Moneylenders                       (d)  None

Ans. (d)

Q.12. Rich  households  in  urban  areas  avail cheap credit from

(a)  formal sources   (b)  informal sources

(c)  government        (d)  all the above

Ans. (a)

Q.13. Productive loans by farmers are taken

(a)  to buy seeds, fertilisers, implements etc.

(b)  for celebration of marriages

(c)  for storage of foodgrains in godowns

(d)  none of the above

Ans. (a)

Q.14. Which of the following is not a source of rural credit?

(a)  Regional rural banks            (b)  Moneylenders

(c)  Traders                                 (d)  Government

Ans. (d)

Q.15. Rate of interest charged by moneylenders as compared to that charged by banks is :

(a)  lower                  (b) same

(c)  slightly higher    (d) much higher

Ans. (d)

Q.16. Regional  Rural  Banks  were  set  up  in

(a)  1969                    (b) 1979 (c)  1989                    (d) 1999

Ans. (a)

Q.17. A Self-Help Group usually has :

(a)  5-10 members    (b) 10-15 members

(c)  15-20 members  (d) 20-25 members

Ans. (c)

Q.18. When  was  the  KCC  (Kisan  Credit Card) scheme introduced?

(a)  1969                    (b) 1979

(c)  1987-88              (d) 1998-99

Ans. (d)

Q.19. Which  state  accounts  for  maximum percentage of SHGs (self-help groups) in bank credit?

(a)  Andhra Pradesh (b) Tamil Nadu

(c)  Kerala                 (d) Karnataka

Ans. (a)

Q.20. _________  are  widely  accepted  as  a medium of exchange.

(a)  Rupee notes       (b) Gold coins

(c)  Silver coins        (d) All the above

Ans. (a)

Q.21. Majority of the credit needs of the poor households are met from

(a)  formal sources (b)  informal sources (c)  self-help groups (d)  none of the above

Ans. (b)

Q.22. Who  supervises  the  functioning  of formal sources of loans?

(a)  RBI (Reserve Bank of India) (b)  Central government

(c)  State government                   (d)  None

Ans. (a)

Q.23. Which  of  the  following  is  a  major reason  which  prevents  the  poor from getting bank loans?

(a)  Absence of collateral (security)         (b)  Non-repayment of loans

(c)  Higher interest rates                           (d)  Documentation

Ans. (a)

Q.24. Who helps the borrowers to overcome the problem of lack of collateral?

(a)  Self-help group (SHG) (b)  State government

(c)  Employers                    (d)  Moneylenders

Ans. (a)

Q.25. Formal sources of credit include

(a)  banks                 (b)  moneylenders

(c)  employers          (d)  all the above

Ans. (a)

Q.26. Which of the following is not a modern form of money?

(a)  Paper notes    (b) Demand deposits

(c)  Silver coins    (d)  None of the above

Ans. (c)

Q.27. Which  of  the  following  is  not  an advantage of self-help group?

(a)  Grant of timely loans

(b)  Reasonable interests

(c)  A platform to discuss various issues

(d)  Does not help women to become self- reliant.

Ans. (d)

Q.28. What do you mean by collateral?

(a)  It is the total sum of money with a person

(b)  It is the things kept in the locker

(c)  It is the guarantee given by the lender to the borrower.

(d)  It is the security to a lender until the loan is repaid

Ans. (c)

Q.29. Identify the formal source of credit. 

(a)  Cooperative societies        (b)  Moneylenders

(c)  Traders                              (d)  Landlords

Ans. (a)

Q.30. Which  one  of  the  following  is  not  a modern form of money?    

(a)  Demand Deposits            (b)  Paper currency

(c)  Coins                               (d)  Precious metals

Ans. (d)

Q.31. Which one of the following authorises money as a medium of exchange?

(a)  Reserve Bank of India                     (b)  Self Help Groups

(c)  The Central Government                 (d)  The President of India.

Ans. (a)

Q.32. Which  of  the  following  is  not  true regarding the in convenience of Barter Exchange ?                (a)  Lack of double coincidence of want (b)  Absence of divisibility

(c)  Difficulty in storing wealth

(d)  Availability of money as a medium of exchange.

Ans. (d)

Q.33. Which one of the following is NOT an informal sector loans for poor rural household in India ?    

(a)  Commercial Banks       (b)  Moneylenders

(c)  Traders                         (d)  Landlords

Ans. (a)

Q.34. Which  one  of  the  following  is  the important characteristic of modern form of currency?          (a)  It is made from precious metal

(b)  It is made from thing of everyday use

(c)  It  is  authorised  by  the  commercial banks

(d)  It is authorised by the Government of the country

Ans. (d)

Q.35. Which one of the following constitutes money in modern day economy?

(a)  Gold               (b) Silver      (c)  Interest           (d) Demand Deposits

Ans. (d)

Q.36. In a SHG most of the decisions regarding loan activities are taken by

(a)  Banks                  (b) Member

(c)  Non-government organizations    (d)  Cooperatives

Ans. (b)

Q.37. Which one of the following is a major reason that prevents the poor from getting loans from the banks?

(a)  Lack of capital

(b)  Not  affordable  due  to  high  rate  of interest

(c)  Absence of collateral security

(d)  Absence of mediators

Ans. (c)

Q.38. Which  one  of  the  following  agencies issues currency notes on behalf of the government of India ?        

(a)  Ministry of Finance        (b)  Reserve Bank of India

(c)  State Bank of India         (d)  World Bank

Ans. (c)

Q.39. Formal Sources of credit include : 

(a)  money lenders  (b) co-operatives

(c)  Employers        (d)  Finance companies

Ans. (b)

Q.40. Anything  which  is  generally  accepted by the people in exchange of goods and services is called :            

(a)  money                 (b) barter       (c)  credit                  (d) loans

Ans. (b)

Q.41. Terms of credit does not include : 

(a)  interest rate   (b) collateral

(c)  cheque           (d) mode of repayment

Ans. (c)

Q.42. Banks do not give loans :  

(a)  to small farmers              (b)  to marginal farmers

(c)  to industries                    (d)  without proper collateral and documents

Ans. (d)

Q.43. The functioning of the formal sources of credit are supervised by :

(a)  Government of India (b)  Reserve Bank of India 

(c)  Ministry of finance    (d)  State Bank of India

Ans. (b)

Q.44. Which one of the following is NOT a formal source of credit?    

(a)  Commercial Banks       (b)  State Bank of India

(c)  Employers                     (d)  Co-operatives

Ans. (c)

Q.45. Which  one  of  the  following  is  not included in the terms of credit?

(a)  Rate of Interest              (b)  Mode of payment

(c)  Rate of saving                (d)  Collateral

Ans. (c)

Q.46. Which is not the main source of credit from the following for rural households in India ?        

(a)  Traders (b)  Relatives and friends (c)  Commercial Banks (d)  Moneylanders

Ans. (a)

Q.47. Cheap and affordable credit results in which one of the following ?

(a)  Slow economic growth     (b)  Creating a debt trap

(c)  Poverty                              (d)  Good economic growth

Ans. (d)

Q.48. Deposits in bank accounts withdrawn on demand are called :    

(a)  Fixed deposit    (b)  Recurring deposit (c)  Demand deposit (d)  None of these

Ans. (c)

Q.49. Banks  use  the  major  portion  of  the deposit to :                          

(a)  Keep reserve so that people may withdraw

(b)  Meet their routine expenses

(c)  Extend loans

(d)  Meet renovation of the bank

Ans. (c)

Q.50. When both parties agree to sell and buy each  others  commodities  it  is  known as :                      (a)  measure of value     (b)  double coincidence of wants

(c)  store of value     (d) credit

Ans. (b)

Q.52. Which  among  these  is  an  essential feature of barter system ? 

(a)  Money can easily exchange any commodity

(b)  It is based on double co-incidence of wants

(c)  It is generally accepted as a medium of exchange of goods with money

(d)  It acts as a measure and store of value

Ans. (b)

Q.53. Which one of the following is the main source of credit for the rich households?

(a)  Informal                             (b)  Formal

(c)  Both formal and informal

(d)  Neither Formal nor informal

Ans. (b)

Q.54. Why  bank  deposits  are  known  as demand deposits ?              

(a)  Deposits with the banks

(b) People  have  the  provision  to withdraw the money when they require.

(c) Deposits with the banks cannot be witdrawn.

(d) People  have  the  provision  to withdraw the money only by cash.

Ans. (b)

Q.55. Which  households  take  more  loans from the formal sector ?    

(a)  Poor households and rich household. 

(b)  Well off households and households

with few assets.

(c) Poor  households  and  well  off households

(d) Well  off  households  and  rich households.

Ans. (d)

Q.56. What  portion  of  deposits  are  kept  by the banks for their day to day transaction ?                         (a)  10%                    (b) 15%     (c)  20%                    (d) 25%

Ans. (b)

More MCQ, Assertion & Reasoning Question

MCQ of Globalisation & It's Impact on Indian Economy

 Q.1. Which sector has not benefited by the policy of globalisation?

(a)  Agricultural sector

(b)  Manufacturing sector

(c)  Service sector

(d)  All the above

Ans. (a)

Q.2. Cheaper imports, inadequate investment in infrastructure lead to

(a)  slowdown in agricultural sector

(b)  replace  the  demand  for  domestic production

(c)  slowdown in industrial sector

(d)  all the above

Ans. (d)

Q.3. Fair  globalisation  refers  to  ensuring benefits to :

(a)  labourers                  (b) producers

(c)  consumers               (d) all the above

Ans. (d)

Q.4. Globalisation results in

(a)  lesser competition among producers 

(b)  greater competition among producers 

(c)  no  change  in  competition  among producers

(d)  none of the above

Ans. (b)

Q.5. When was the WTO established?

(a)  1985                        (b) 1995 (c)  2000                        (d) 2005

Ans. (b)

Q.6. Globalisation leads to rapid movements of the following between countries :

(a)  goods and services

(b)  investments

(c)  people

(d)  all the above

Ans. (d)

Q.7. Which   has   played   a   big   role   in spreading globalisation?

(a)  Information technology (IT) (b)  Transport technology

(c)  Both (a) and (b) (d)  None of the above

Ans. (c)

Q.8. Globalisation has led to improvement in

(a)  choice to consumers

(b)  quality of goods and services

(c)  foreign investment

(d)  all the above

Ans. (d)

Q.9. Which of the following factors has not facilitated globalisation?

(a)  Technology                       (b)  Liberlisation of trade

(c)  WTO                                 (d)  Nationalisation of banks

Ans. (d)

Q.10. One of the major results of globalisation in India has been in the growth of

(a)  outsourcing by MNCs

(b)  transportation services

(c)  telecommunication services

(d)  none of the above

Ans. (a)

Q.11. Globalisation so far has been more in favour of

(a)  developed countries (b)  developing countries 

(c)  poor countries           (d)  none of the above

Ans. (a)

Q.12. Multinational corporations have succeeded in entering global markets through

(a)  WTO                 (b) UNO       (c)  UNESCO          (d) none of the above

Ans. (a)

Q.13. At present what is the  number  of  member countries of WTO :

(a)  169                          (b) 164         (c)  179                          (d) 170

Ans. (b)

Q.14. FDI  (Foreign Direct Investment) attracted by globalisation in India belongs to the

(a)  World Bank                      (b)  multinationals

(c)  foreign governments        (d)  none of the above

Ans. (b)

Q.15. When economic activities in a country are influenced by economic activities in other countries, it is called

(a)  foreign trade           (b) competition

(c)  globalisation            (d) all the above

Ans. (c)

Q.16. A company that operates in more than one country is called a

(a)  partnership              (b) corporation

(c)  foreign company     (d) multinational

Ans. (d)

Q.17. Investment means spending on

(a)  factory building      (b) machines

(c)  equipments              (d) all the above

Ans. (d)

Q.18. Which  of  the  following  contributes  to globalisation?

(a)  internal trade      (b) external trade

(c)  large scale trade (d) small scale trade

Ans. (b)

Q.19. Integration of markets means

(a)  operating   beyond   the   domestic markets

(b)  wider choice of goods

(c)  competitive price

(d)  all the above

Ans. (d)

Q.20. Liberalisation refers to

(a)  freeing  the  economy  from  direct control

(b)  putting an end to various restrictions

(c)  opening up the economy

(d)  all the above

Ans. (d)

Q.21. Name the organisation whose aim is to liberalise international trade.

(a)  ILO  (International Labour Organisation)

(b)  WHO (World Health Organisation) 

(c)  WTO (World Trade Organisation)

(d)  NSSO  (National  Sample  Survey Organisation)

Ans. (c)

Q.22. What attracts an MNC?

(a)  Cheap labour

(b)  Ready demand for the product

(c)  Both (a) and (b) (d)  None of the above

Ans. (c)

Q.23. What is the impact of LPG policy of the government?

(a)  Stiff competition among producers

(b)  Increase in inequalities

(c)  Greater choice to consumers

(d)  All the above

Ans. (d)

Q.24. Globalisation results in

(a)  inflow of labour from abroad (b)  inflow of capital from abroad 

(c)  inflow of tourists from abroad (d)  all the above

Ans. (b)

Q.25. Globalisation leads to 

(a)  more competition (b)  less competition

(c)  monopoly             (d)  none of the above

Ans. (a)

Q.26. Special Economic Zones (SEZ) developed by the Government of India aim

(a)  to attract foreign companies to invest in India

(b)  to encourage small investors

(c)  to encourage regional development

(d)  none of the above

Ans. (a)

Q.27. Benefits enjoyed by companies who set up production units in the SEZs are : 

(a)  they do not have to pay taxes for some years

(b)  reduction in excise duty

(c)  reduced tariffs and barriers

(d)  none of the above

Ans. (a)

Q.28. Globalisation is called fair globalisation when it benefits

(a)  labour                      (b) investors

(c)  consumers               (d) all the above

Ans. (d)

Q.29. Which one among the following is a far reaching change in the policy made in India in 1991 ?                    

(a)  Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government which is known as liberalisation.

(b) Put barriers to foreign trade and foreign investments.

(c)  Restrictions set by the government to protect the producers within the country from foreign competition.

(d) By giving protection to domestic producers through a variety of means.

Ans. (a)

Q.30. Which one of the following is not true regarding impact of globalisation of India?  

(a)  It has created jobs in the service sector.

(b) People with education, skill and wealth have not been benefited.

(c) Benefits of globalisation are not shared equally.

(d) Labour laws are not implemented properly and workers are denied their rights.

Ans. (d)

Q.31. Which one of the following is not true regarding the World Trade Organisation?  

(a)  It allows free trade to all countries without any trade barriers.

(b) Its aim is to liberalise international trade.

(c) It  establishes  rules  regarding internaional trade.

(d) WTO  rules  have  forced  the developing countries to remove trade barriers.

Ans. (a)

Q.32. Which one of the following is a major benefit of joint production between a local company and a Multi-National Company ?                           

 (a)  MNC can bring latest technology in the production

(b)  MNC can control the increase in the price

(c)  MNC can buy the local company

(d)  MNC  can  sell  the  products  under their brand name

Ans. (a)

Q.33. Globlisation shall result in :

(a)  lesser competition among producers

(b)  greater competition among producers

(c)  no  change  in  competition  among producers

(d)  destruction of large scale producers

Ans. (b)

Q.34. Rapid  integration  or  inter  connection between countries is known as :

(a)  Privatisation     (b)  Globalisation

(c)  Liberalisation   (d)  Socialisation

Ans. (b)

Q.35. The most common route for investments by MNCs in countries around the world is to :  

 (a)  set up new factories

(b)  buy existing local companies

(c)  form    partnerships    with    local companies

(d)  None of these

Ans. (a)

Q.36. Taxes on imports is an example of : 

(a)  terms of trade         (b) collateral

(c)  trade barriers           (d) foreign trade

Ans. (c)

Q.37. What is foreign investment ?

(a)  Investment made by foreign governments.

(b)  Investment made by foreign companies.

(c)  Investment made by the foreign MNCs.

(d)  Investment made by the IMF and the World Bank.

Ans. (c)

Q.38. Entry of MNCs in a domestic market may prove harmful for :   

(a)  all large scale producers.

(b)  all domestic producers.

(c)  all substandard domestic producers. 

(d)  all small scale producers.

Ans. (d)

Q.39. Which  of  the  following  organisations lays stress on liberalisation of foreign trade and foreign investment ?

(a)  International Labour Organisation

(b)World Health Organisation

(c)  International Monetary Fund

(d)World Trade Organisation

Ans. (d)

Q.40. Which  one  of  the  following  is  an example of a trade barrier? 

 (a)  Tax on export

(b)  Tax on imports

(c)  Tax on local trade

(d)  High income tax

Ans. (b)

Q.41. Globalisation    has    posed    major challanges for:                     

 (a)  Big producers         (b)  Small producers

(c)  Rural poor               (d) Urban poor

Ans. (b)

Q.42. Investment by MNCs is called :

(a)  Mutual Investment             (b)  Inter-government Investment

(c)  Portfolio Investment           (d)  Foreign Investment

Ans. (d)

Q.43. Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government is known as :

(a)  privatisation            (b) globalisation

(c)  liberalisation           (d) socialisation

Ans. (c)

Q.44. What  is  the  most  common  route  for investments by MNCs in countries around the world ?      (a)  Set up new factories

(b)  Buy existing local companies

(c)  Form    partnerships    with    local companies

(d)  None of the above

Ans. (b)

Q.45. Which one of the following categories refers to investment ?       

(a)  The money that is spent to buy assets such as land, building, machines, etc.

(b)  The money that is spent on religious ceremonies.

(c)  The  money  that  is  spent  on  social customs.

(d)  The money that is spent on household goods.

Ans. (a)

Q.46. Which  one  of  the  following  is  not  a Multinations Company?     

 (a)  Tata Motors            (b) Infosys IT

(c)  Ranbaxy                  (d)  Tata Iron and Steel Company

Ans. (d)

Q.47. Which one of the following has benefied least because of globalisation in India? 

(a)  Agriculture Sector

(b)  Industrial Sector

(c)  Service Sector

(d)  Secondary Sector

Ans. (a)

Q.48. Why  do  MNCs  set  up  offices  and factories in more than one nation ?

(a)  The cost of production is high and the MNCs can earn profit.

(b)  The cost of production is low and the MNCs undergoes a loss.

(c)  The cost of production is low and the MNCS can earn greater profit.

(d)  The  MNCs  want  to  make  their presence felt globally.

Ans. (c)

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