SOCIAL SCIENCE-IX (TERM-II)
MODEL TEST PAPER
Summative Assessment - 2 (Term – II)
General Instructions :
Time Allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 90
General Instructions
1. The question paper has 31 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
2. Marks are indicated against each question.
3. This question paper consists of FOUR SECTIONS. Sections A of the question paper contains Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) from serial number 1 to 10 of 1 mark each. These Ten questions of Section A are to be answered on a separate sheet provided. This part has to be completed in first 30 minutes only and the answer sheet must be handed over to the invigilator before starting Section B.
4. In Section B, C and D of the question paper, there are Twenty One questions from serial no. 11 to 31 which are to be attempted in 2 hours and 30 minutes. This part should be attempted only after the stipulated time given for Section A.
5. Questions from serial number 11 to 22 are 3 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
6. Questions from serial number 23 to 30 are 5 marks questions. Answers of these questions should not exceed 120 words each.
7. Question number 31 is a map question of 4 marks from Geography only. After completion, attach the map inside your answer book.
PART - I
(Questions from Serial Nos. 1-10 carry 1 mark each.)
(Answer Q. No. 1, 2 from any one of the following groups A, B and C.)
GROUP-A
1. The flowers of which trees can be eaten or used to make alcohol and seeds can be used to make oil? [1]
(A) Mahua (B) Mango (C) Banyan (D) Tamarind
2. Who were the colonial power in Indonesia? [1]
(A) British (B) Dutch (C) French (D) Portuguese
GROUP-B
1. Which of the following nomadic communities belonged to the Madras Presidency? [1]
(A) Korava (B) Karacha (C) Yerukula (D) All of these
2. Pastoralists were found in the [1]
(A) Plateaus (B) Plains (C) Deserts (D) All the above
GROUP-C
1. In the 19th century the two major commercial crops India came to produce for the world market were which of these? [1]
(A) Indigo & opium (B) Opium & cotton (C) Cotton & indigo (D) None of these
2. What was the result of the opium war? [1]
(A) Britain stopped the sale of opium
(B) Britain agreed with China to sell only limited quantity
(C) Britain declared war
(D) None of the above
3. The winter rainfall known as ‘Mahawat’ is very important for the cultivation of which crops? [1]
(A) Kharif crops (B) Rabi crops (C) Zaid crops (D) All of these
4. According to the Census 2001, a ‘literate’ person is one who [1]
(A) can read and write his/her name
(B) can read and write any language
(C) is 7 years old and can read and write any language with understanding14
(D) knows the 3 ‘R’s (reading, writing, arithmetic)
5. Which of these is not a kind of the district and local level bodies? [1]
(A) Panchayats (B) Municipalities (C) Corporations (D) Lok Sabha
6. Which among the following is incorrect? [1]
(A) Election Commission conducts all elections for the Parliament and Assemblies
(B) It directs and controls the preparation of electoral rolls
(C) It can fix the election dates
(D) It scrutinises the nomination papers
7. When was the National Human Rights Commission set up? [1]
(A) 1998 (B) 1996 (C) 1993 (D) 2001
8. Which of the following pairs is incorrect? [1]
(A) NREGA – 2005 (B) NFWP – 2004 (C) REGP – 1995 (D) PMGY – 1998
9. What is MSP? [1]
(A) Minimum support price (B) Maximum support price
(C) Moderate support price (D) None of these
10. Which ministry announces the MSP ?
(A) Ministry of Rural Development (B) Ministry of Human Resource
(C) Ministry of Agriculture (D) Ministry of Forests and Environment
PART - II
(Questions from Serial Nos. 11-22 carry 3 marks each.)
11. Describe the views of Mahatma Gandhi regarding games like cricket and hockey. Do you agree with his views? Why? Why not? [3]
OR
What was the view of Rabindranath Tagore regarding ‘national dress’? [3]
12. ‘The social superiority of amateurs was built into the customs of cricket.’ How? [3]
OR
‘Mahatma Gandhi’s experiments with clothing sum up the changing attitude to dress in the Indian subcontinent.’ Explain. [3]
13. Which part of India does experience the highest diurnal range of temperature and why? [3]
14. Name different types of vegetation found in India and describe the vegetation of high altitudes. [3]
15. Describe the main features of natural vegetation in India. [3]
16. Mention three advantages of having a healthy population? [3]
17. Are the elections too expensive for our country? Should they be discontinued? Describe your view giving proper arguments. [3]
18. Who is more powerful — the President or the Prime Minister of India? Justify your answer by giving three arguments. [3]
19. Mention the six freedoms available to an Indian citizen under the Right to Freedom. [3]
20. Bring out any three features of global poverty trends. [3]
21. Mention three limitations in the functioning of Public Distribution System. [3]
22. What has our government done to provide food security to the poor? Discuss any two schemes launched by the government. [3]
PART - III
(Questions from Serial Nos. 23-30 carry 5 marks each.)
23. Bring out the similarities and dissimilarities between colonial management of the forests in India and in Java. [5]
Or
Explain the reasons for cyclic movement of the pastoral communities. Illustrate one example. [5]
Or
Mention the consequences of the Enclosure Movement on the agricultural labourers. How did they cope up with it? [5]
24. Discuss the uniqueness of Test Cricket in relation to other team games. Give reasons for this uniqueness.[5]
OR
Describe how Mahatma Gandhi used his dress code as a political statement. [5]
25. Differentiate between the Cold and Hot weather season. [5]
26. Explain three factors responsible for the diversification of flora. [5]
27. How does the Parliament exercise political authority on behalf of the people? Describe four ways in which it does so. [5]
28. ‘Rights are guarantees which can be used when things go wrong.’ Discuss. [5]
29. (A) What do you understand by human poverty? [2]
(B) Who constitute the poorest of the poor? [2]
30. (A) What happens to the supply of food when there is a disaster or a calamity? [2]
(B) How is food security ensured in India? [2]
PART - IV
(Question from Serial No. 31 is a Map Question of 4 marks from Geography only.)
(31.1) Two features 1 and 2 are marked on the given outline political map of India. Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map. [2]
(1) Only meteorological station in a North-East state.
(2) Bird sanctuary in south India.
(31.2). Locate and label the following on the given outline political map of India. [2]
(i) Capital of Maharashtra that has a meteorological station.
(ii) Region of tropical deciduous forests in India.
Note:- The following question is for the visually impaired candidates only in lieu of Question no.31. [4]
(31.1) Name the state which has highest sex-ratio.
(31.2) How much rainfall is required for the development and growth of tropical evergreen forests.
(31.3) Name the meteorological station located in the Himalayan region.
(31.4) Name a bird sanctuary in South India.
MODEL TEST PAPER
Summative Assessment - 2 (Term – II)
General Instructions :
Time Allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 90
General Instructions
1. The question paper has 31 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
2. Marks are indicated against each question.
3. This question paper consists of FOUR SECTIONS. Sections A of the question paper contains Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) from serial number 1 to 10 of 1 mark each. These Ten questions of Section A are to be answered on a separate sheet provided. This part has to be completed in first 30 minutes only and the answer sheet must be handed over to the invigilator before starting Section B.
4. In Section B, C and D of the question paper, there are Twenty One questions from serial no. 11 to 31 which are to be attempted in 2 hours and 30 minutes. This part should be attempted only after the stipulated time given for Section A.
5. Questions from serial number 11 to 22 are 3 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
6. Questions from serial number 23 to 30 are 5 marks questions. Answers of these questions should not exceed 120 words each.
7. Question number 31 is a map question of 4 marks from Geography only. After completion, attach the map inside your answer book.
PART - I
(Questions from Serial Nos. 1-10 carry 1 mark each.)
(Answer Q. No. 1, 2 from any one of the following groups A, B and C.)
GROUP-A
1. The flowers of which trees can be eaten or used to make alcohol and seeds can be used to make oil? [1]
(A) Mahua (B) Mango (C) Banyan (D) Tamarind
2. Who were the colonial power in Indonesia? [1]
(A) British (B) Dutch (C) French (D) Portuguese
GROUP-B
1. Which of the following nomadic communities belonged to the Madras Presidency? [1]
(A) Korava (B) Karacha (C) Yerukula (D) All of these
2. Pastoralists were found in the [1]
(A) Plateaus (B) Plains (C) Deserts (D) All the above
GROUP-C
1. In the 19th century the two major commercial crops India came to produce for the world market were which of these? [1]
(A) Indigo & opium (B) Opium & cotton (C) Cotton & indigo (D) None of these
2. What was the result of the opium war? [1]
(A) Britain stopped the sale of opium
(B) Britain agreed with China to sell only limited quantity
(C) Britain declared war
(D) None of the above
3. The winter rainfall known as ‘Mahawat’ is very important for the cultivation of which crops? [1]
(A) Kharif crops (B) Rabi crops (C) Zaid crops (D) All of these
4. According to the Census 2001, a ‘literate’ person is one who [1]
(A) can read and write his/her name
(B) can read and write any language
(C) is 7 years old and can read and write any language with understanding14
(D) knows the 3 ‘R’s (reading, writing, arithmetic)
5. Which of these is not a kind of the district and local level bodies? [1]
(A) Panchayats (B) Municipalities (C) Corporations (D) Lok Sabha
6. Which among the following is incorrect? [1]
(A) Election Commission conducts all elections for the Parliament and Assemblies
(B) It directs and controls the preparation of electoral rolls
(C) It can fix the election dates
(D) It scrutinises the nomination papers
7. When was the National Human Rights Commission set up? [1]
(A) 1998 (B) 1996 (C) 1993 (D) 2001
8. Which of the following pairs is incorrect? [1]
(A) NREGA – 2005 (B) NFWP – 2004 (C) REGP – 1995 (D) PMGY – 1998
9. What is MSP? [1]
(A) Minimum support price (B) Maximum support price
(C) Moderate support price (D) None of these
10. Which ministry announces the MSP ?
(A) Ministry of Rural Development (B) Ministry of Human Resource
(C) Ministry of Agriculture (D) Ministry of Forests and Environment
PART - II
(Questions from Serial Nos. 11-22 carry 3 marks each.)
11. Describe the views of Mahatma Gandhi regarding games like cricket and hockey. Do you agree with his views? Why? Why not? [3]
OR
What was the view of Rabindranath Tagore regarding ‘national dress’? [3]
12. ‘The social superiority of amateurs was built into the customs of cricket.’ How? [3]
OR
‘Mahatma Gandhi’s experiments with clothing sum up the changing attitude to dress in the Indian subcontinent.’ Explain. [3]
13. Which part of India does experience the highest diurnal range of temperature and why? [3]
14. Name different types of vegetation found in India and describe the vegetation of high altitudes. [3]
15. Describe the main features of natural vegetation in India. [3]
16. Mention three advantages of having a healthy population? [3]
17. Are the elections too expensive for our country? Should they be discontinued? Describe your view giving proper arguments. [3]
18. Who is more powerful — the President or the Prime Minister of India? Justify your answer by giving three arguments. [3]
19. Mention the six freedoms available to an Indian citizen under the Right to Freedom. [3]
20. Bring out any three features of global poverty trends. [3]
21. Mention three limitations in the functioning of Public Distribution System. [3]
22. What has our government done to provide food security to the poor? Discuss any two schemes launched by the government. [3]
PART - III
(Questions from Serial Nos. 23-30 carry 5 marks each.)
23. Bring out the similarities and dissimilarities between colonial management of the forests in India and in Java. [5]
Or
Explain the reasons for cyclic movement of the pastoral communities. Illustrate one example. [5]
Or
Mention the consequences of the Enclosure Movement on the agricultural labourers. How did they cope up with it? [5]
24. Discuss the uniqueness of Test Cricket in relation to other team games. Give reasons for this uniqueness.[5]
OR
Describe how Mahatma Gandhi used his dress code as a political statement. [5]
25. Differentiate between the Cold and Hot weather season. [5]
26. Explain three factors responsible for the diversification of flora. [5]
27. How does the Parliament exercise political authority on behalf of the people? Describe four ways in which it does so. [5]
28. ‘Rights are guarantees which can be used when things go wrong.’ Discuss. [5]
29. (A) What do you understand by human poverty? [2]
(B) Who constitute the poorest of the poor? [2]
30. (A) What happens to the supply of food when there is a disaster or a calamity? [2]
(B) How is food security ensured in India? [2]
PART - IV
(Question from Serial No. 31 is a Map Question of 4 marks from Geography only.)
(31.1) Two features 1 and 2 are marked on the given outline political map of India. Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map. [2]
(1) Only meteorological station in a North-East state.
(2) Bird sanctuary in south India.
(31.2). Locate and label the following on the given outline political map of India. [2]
(i) Capital of Maharashtra that has a meteorological station.
(ii) Region of tropical deciduous forests in India.
Note:- The following question is for the visually impaired candidates only in lieu of Question no.31. [4]
(31.1) Name the state which has highest sex-ratio.
(31.2) How much rainfall is required for the development and growth of tropical evergreen forests.
(31.3) Name the meteorological station located in the Himalayan region.
(31.4) Name a bird sanctuary in South India.
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