Class IX -Democratic Rights

NCERT TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS

Questions within the Lesson

Page No. 97

Q.1. Chapter one: Chile under Pinochet and Poland under Jaruzelsky were not democratic because ......

Chapter Two: A comprehensive definition of democracy includes ....

Chapter Three: Our constitution makers believed that fundamental rights were quite central to the constitution because ....

Chapter Four: Every adult citizen of India has the right to ... and to be ....

Chapter Five: If a law is against the Constitution, every citizen has the right to approach .....

Ans. Chapter One : Chile under Pinochet and Poland under Jaruzelsky were not democratic because they did not grant freedom of speech and expression to its people and did not hold free and fair elections regularly.

Chapter Two : A comprehensive definition of democracy includes a government of the people, elected periodically by universal adult franchise through free and fair elections. The will of the people is supreme in a democracy.

Chapter Three : Our Constitution makers believed that fundamental rights were quite central to the constitution because they were committed to universal adult franchise, right to freedom and equality and to protecting the rights of the minorities.

Chapter Four : Every adult citizen of India has the right to vote and to be elected.

Chapter Five : If a law is against the constitution, every citizen has the right to approach the courts.

Page No. 98

Q.2. If you were a Serb, would you support what Milosevic did in Kosovo? Do you think this project of establishing Serb dominance was good for the Serbs?

Ans. I would oppose it. This kind of eminence would recoil on the Serbs themselves as it would make them very unpopular. It did. The Albanians overthrew Milosevic and he died in a prison. He would always be remembered for his brutality and terror.

Page No. 100

Q.3. What are the examples of elected governments not protecting or even attacking the rights of their own citizens? Why do they do that?

Ans. Examples of Pinochet in Chile; Mugabe of Zimbabwe, Milosevic in Kosovo, Saddam Hussein in Iraq. They do that so that they can remain in power by terrorising the minorities and their own people.

Page No. 101

Q.4. Everyone knows that the rich can have better lawyers in the courts. What is the point in talking about equality before law?

Ans. The lawyers, however brilliant, do not decide the case. It is the judge who does so, and so far judiciary has shown that it is impartial and gives fair justice.

Page No. 103

Q.5. Should the freedom of expression be extended to those who are spreading wrong and narrow-minded ideas? Should they be allowed to confuse the public?

Ans. No. They should be warned or punished. Freedom of expression does not allow one to encroach on other people’s freedom or hurt their feelings, create confusion or conflict.

Page No. 106

Q.6. The constitution does not give people their religion. Then how can it give people the right to practice their religion?

Ans. Our constitution does not favour any religion. It is secular. The constitution is not concerned with the relation between human beings and God. It is only concerned with relations among human beings, so it has given the people the right to practice, profess, propagate their religion. It only safeguards that this freedom is not misused.

Page No. 107

Q.7. Can the President of India stop you from approaching the Supreme Court to secure your fundamental rights?

Ans. No. It is the fundamental right granted by the constitution. The President has to abide by the laws of the constitution.

Page No. 109

Q.8. Are these rights only for adults? Which of these rights are available to children?

Ans. (i) Compulsory education given free to every child till the age of 14. That is school education is compulsory. 

(ii) Child labour is not allowed by the constitution. Children under the age of 14 cannot be employed in dangerous occupations. Example, mines, factories, etc.

Questions  in the Exercise

Q.1. Which of the following is not an instance of the exercise of a fundamental right?

(a) Workers from Bihar go to Punjab to work on the farms.

(b) Christian missions set up a chain of missionary schools.

(c) Men and women government employees get the same salary.

(d) Parents’ property is inherited by their children.

Ans. (d) Parents’ property is inherited by their children.

Q.2. Which of the following freedoms is available to an Indian citizen?

(a) Freedom to criticise the government

(b) Freedom to participate in armed revolution

(c) Freedom to start a movement to change the government

(d) Freedom to oppose the central values of the constitution

Ans. (a) Freedom to criticise the government.

Q.3. Which of the following rights is available under the Indian Constitution?

(a) Right to work (b) Right to adequate livelihood

(c) Right to protect one’s culture (d) Right to privacy

Ans. (c) Right to protect one’s culture.

Q.4. Name the Fundamental Right under which each of the following rights falls :

(a) Freedom to propagate one’s religion (b) Right to life

(c) Abolition of untouchability (d) Ban on bonded labour

Ans. (a) Right to Freedom of Religion (b) Right to Freedom

(c) Right to Equality (d) Right Against Exploitation.

Q.5. Which of these statements about the relationship between democracy and rights is more valid? Give reasons for your preference.

(a) Every country that is a democracy gives rights to its citizens.

(b) Every country that gives rights to its citizens is a democracy.

(c) Giving rights is good, but is not necessary for a democracy.

Ans. (b) Unless the people are given the right to choose and vote freely their representative in the government, the country cannot have a democracy. A true a democratic country is called only when the citizens choose their government or representatives.

Q.6. Are these restrictions on the Right to Freedom justified? Give reasons for your answer.

(a) Indian citizens need permission to visit some border areas of the country for reasons of security.

(b) Outsiders are not allowed to buy property in some areas to protect the interest of the local population.

(c) The government bans the publication of a book that can go against the ruling party in the next elections.

Ans. (a) It is justified. The security of a country is the first duty of a government, and it can stop people from visiting the border areas.

(b) This action is also justified. The local population may not be financially strong to protect its interests. Outsiders can take away their rights in their own area, so the government’s step is right.

(c) No, this is not justified. The publication of a book can only be banned if it disturbs peace or hurts the sentiments of a section of people, and not on grounds of protecting the ruling party’s prospects in the next elections.

Q.7. Manoj went to a college to apply for admission into an MBA course. The clerk refused to take his application and said, “You, the son of a sweeper, wish to be a manager! Has anyone done this job in your community? Go to the municipality office and apply for a sweeper’s position.” Which of Manoj’s fundamental rights are being violated in this instance? Spell these out in a letter from Manoj to the District Collector.

Ans. The following rights are being violated.

1. Right to Equality :  Everyone is equal in the eyes of the law. No one can be denied admissions on grounds of birth. The person is practicing “untouchability” in an indirect way, and this is an offence in the eyes of law. His right to opportunity is also being violated.

2. Right to Freedom : Manoj has a right to apply for any job anywhere as long as he is qualified for it.

These two points should be pointed out in your letter to the District Collector.

Q.8. When Madhurima went to the property registration office, the Registrar told her, “You can’t write your name as Madhurima Banerjee d/o A.K. Banerjee. You are married, so you must give your husband’s name. Your husband’s surname is Rao. So your name should be changed to Madhurima Rao.” She did not agree. She said, “If my husband’s name has not changed after marriage, why should mine?” In your opinion who is right in this dispute? And why?

Ans. There is no law which states that a woman can own property in her married name only. The constitution gives equal right to both men and women. So if Madhurima wants to give her maiden name, though married, she has the right to do so. The Registrar is being traditional.

Q.9. Thousands of tribals and other forest dwellers gathered at Piparia in Hoshnagabad district in Madhya Pradesh to protest against their proposed displacement from the Satpura National Park, Bori Wildlife Sanctuary and Panchmarhi Wildlife Sanctuary. They argue that such a displacement is an attack on their livelihood and beliefs. Government claims that their displacement is essential for the development of the area

and for protection of wildlife. Write a petition on behalf of the forest dwellers to the NHRC, a response from the government and a report of the NHRC on this matter.

Ans. (a) Letter from Tribals to NHRC can include these points

i. Government’s proposal is a violation of human rights.

ii. It is taking away their right to live, right to follow their beliefs.

iii. For centuries the forests have been their means of livelihood.

iv. They have practised their rituals here.

v. No alternative has been suggested to them.

vi. Nothing has happened to the wildlife, so why this sudden interest?

vii. Displacement would cause untold misery to them, their families, children and their future.

(b) Response from the Government may include these points

i. The government had given a warning to the people two years ago.

ii. There has been an alarming rise in poaching, cutting of trees and killing of wildlife.

iii. Environmental pollution has also increased.

iv. It is the government’s duty to protect the endangered species.

v. The government has offered compensation and promised rehabilitation in alternative places.

vi. Offered jobs to the men.

NHRC’s Report may include these points

i. Both sides have a point.

ii. The Tribals have tradition, practice and decades of residence behind them. It is their world and life.

iii. Sudden uprooting will leave them emotionally disturbed, turn them into vagabonds and force them into jobs or occupations which they have never followed.

iv. The Government is right in its concern for wildlife. It is its duty to save certain species from becoming extinct. Poachers are having a field day, and every day the environment is threatened.

Suggestions : Transfer should be slow, not sudden. First, shelter and occupation should be provided to all the people. Education should be the primary concern. Only through education can the younger generation take to the new environment and occupation. Not one family should be rendered homeless and without means of occupation.

Write these points in three different letters.

Class IX - The Story of Cricket

NCERT Questions

Q.1. Test cricket is a unique game in many ways. Discuss some of the ways in which it is different from other team games. How are the peculiarities of Test cricket shaped by its historical beginnings as a village game?

Ans. The two peculiarities of Test cricket are :

(i) That a match can go on for five days and still end in a draw. No other modern day team sport takes even half as much time to complete. Baseball completes nine innings in less than half the time that it takes to play a limited overs match.

(ii) That the length of the pitch is specified — 22 yards — but the size or shape of the ground is not. No dimensions of the playing area are mentioned for cricket.

The reason behind these oddities is that cricket was the earliest modern team sport to be codified. Cricket was a game before hockey and soccer and hence gave itself rules and regulations so that it could be played in a uniform and standardised manner.

Originally cricket matches had no time limits. This was because the rhythms of village life was slower and cricket rules were made before the Industrial Revolution. Modern factory labour was paid by hours and hence games had to be codified and time limited to fit the routines of industrial city life. When cricket originated, there were no such limits or restrictions.

Cricket was originally played on public property known as commons. The size of this land varied from one village to another, so there were no designated boundaries or boundary hits.

This brought about the second oddity of cricket. If you look at the game’s equipment, you can see how cricket both changed with changing times and yet fundamentally remained true to its origins in rural England. Cricket’s most important tools are all made of natural, pre-industrial materials. The bat is made of wood as

are the stumps and the bails. The ball is made of leather, twine and cork. Even today both bat and ball are hand-made, not industrially manufactured. The material of the bat changed slightly over time. Once it was cut of a single piece of wood. Now it consists of two pieces, the blade which is made out of the wood of the willow tree and the handle which is made out of cane that became available as European colonialists and trading companies established themselves in Asia. Unlike golf and tennis, cricket has refused to remake its tools with industrial or man-made materials: plastic, fibre glass and metal have been firmly rejected.

Q.2. Describe one way in which in the nineteenth century, technology brought about a change in equipment and give one example where no change in equipment took place.

Ans. As far as protective equipment in cricket is concerned, it has been influenced by technological change. The invention of the vulcanised rubber led to the introduction of pads in 1848 and protective gloves soon afterwards. Today’s cricket cannot be imagined without helmets made of metal and synthetic lightweight materials.

However, cricket’s most important tools are all made of natural, pre-industrial material. The ball, for example, is still hand-made. It is made of leather, twine and cork. These balls are not industrially manufactured.

Q.3. Explain why cricket became popular in India and the West Indies.

Ans. Cricket was a colonial game limited to countries that had once been part of the British empire. It took root only in countries that the British conquered and ruled. The British imperial officers brought the game to the colonies where it was played either by them or by the local elites who wanted to copy the habits of their colonial masters as in India.

Despite the exclusiveness of the game it became popular in India and West Indies. Success in cricket became a measure of racial equality and political progress.

Q.4. Give brief explanations for the following :

(i) The Parsis were the first Indian community to set up a cricket club in India.

(ii) Mahatma Gandhi condemned the Pentangular tournament.

(iii) The name of the ICC was changed from the Imperial Cricket Conference to the International Cricket Conference.

(iv) The significance of the shift of the ICC headquarters from London to Dubai.

Ans.
(i) The Parsis were the first Indian community to set up a cricket club in India, the Oriental Cricket Club in Bombay. This was as a consequence of the Parsi contact with the British. The Parsis were brought into close contact with the British because of their interest in trade and were the first Indian community to westernise.

(ii) Mahatma Gandhi condemned the Pentangular tournament as he felt that it was a divisive competition that went against the need of the hour. At a time when the nationalists were trying to unite India’s diverse population, the Pentangular tournament divided them on communal lines and the colonial government encouraged these divisions.

(iii) The name was changed because of decolonisation. This was a process by which the British influence in many areas, one of them sports, declined. Cricket was no longer the monopoly of the imperial powers. Cricket was becoming international. In time, it came to be accepted that the laws of cricket could not continue to be framed for British or Australian conditions of play and they became part of the technique of all bowlers, everywhere in the world.

(iii) The break-up of the British empire brought about a shift in the balance of power in cricket. This shift was taken to its logical conclusion by globalisation. Since India had the largest viewership for cricket as compared to other cricket playing nations the shift was towards South Asia. The transfer of ICC headquarters from London to tax-free Dubai is a clear symbol of this shift.

Q.5. How have advances in technology, especially television technology, affected the development of contemporary cricket?

Ans. Advances in television technology have certainly affected the development of contemporary cricket.
(i) Cricket has become more attractive to television audiences, endured and changed the nature of the game. Cricket now became a marketable game.

(ii) Cricket boards sold television rights to television companies and reaped profits.

(iii) Television channels sold television spots to companies. They aired their commercials and advertised their commodities to a large number of audience. They made huge profits.

(iv) Continuous television coverage made cricketers celebrities.

(v) Cricketers became rich. They were paid by cricket boards and also by companies whose commercials they endorsed.

(vi) Cricket audience expanded. Cricket was taken to the smaller towns. Children also became

cricket fans.

(vii) People could watch and learn by imitating their heroes.

(viii) Cricket entered the global market. A match at Melbourne could be watched at Mumbai.

(ix) Balance of power shifted to South Asia as most viewership was from here. ICC headquarters shifted from London to tax-free Dubai.

Class X - Consumer Rights

NCERT TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS

Questions Within The Lesson

Q.1. Find out any case of negligence on the part of people around you, where you think that

the responsibility lay with the producers. Discuss.

Ans. In a recent case of child birth involving surgery, anesthesia was given to an expecting mother. But the late arrival of the operating doctor created a situation where only the child could be saved and mother could not survive because of extra time for which anesthesia was given to her.

Q.2. For the following products/services discuss what safety rules should be observed by the

producers.

(a) LPG cylinders (b) cinema theatres  (c) circus (d) medicines (e) edible oil (f) marriage pandal

(g) highrise building

Ans. (a) LPG Cylinders :

(i) The LPG has to have a distinct odour, easily detectable, in case of a leakage.

(ii) The cylinder should be strong and explosion proof to avoid accidents due to explosion.

(b) Cinema Theatres :

(i) The exits should be well lit and wide enough to prevent any stampede.

(iii) There should be provision of fire extinguishers at several locations to prevent any mishap.

(c) Circus :

(i) Emergency evacuation route should be well laid out and visible.

(ii) Circulation of air should be adequate to avoid instances of suffocation.

(d) Medicines  :

(i) Do not buy any medicine after its expiry date.

(ii) Use medicine only after prescribed by qualified doctor.

(e) Edible oil :

(i) See Agmark on the product and its ingredients. It should not contain high saturated fats.

(f) Marriage Pandals :

(i) Should have adequate provisions for proper and safe parking of vehicles.

(ii) Maintenance of hygienic environment.

(g) High-rise Buildings :

(i) Uninterrupted availability of electricity for elevators.

(ii) Adequate arrangement of fire extinguishers.

Q.3. What is the difference between Consumer Protection Council and Consumer Court?

Ans. (1) Consumer Protection Councils which were formed under Consumer Protection Act in 1986 guide consumers on how to file cases in a consumer court while consumer courts look into the grievances and complaints of the consumers.

(2) Consumer court at district level is called District Consumer Forum, while at state level it is called State Consumer Commission and at national level it is called Consumer Protection Council.

Q.4. Find out the details of who provides Hallmark and ISO certification.

Ans. Hallmark :  Hallmark is quality certification for jewellery. This mark is issued by Indian Standards Institution whose headquarter is in New Delhi.

ISO certification : At international level, International Organisation for Standardisation (ISO) whose headquarter is in Geneva (established in 1947) issues ISO certification which indicates companies, goods or institutions having this certification meet the specific level of standards.

Q.5. The Consumer Protection Act, 1986, ensures the following as rights which every consumer in India should possess

(i) Right to choice (iv) Right to representation

(ii) Right to information (v) Right to safety

(iii) Right to redressal (vi) Right to consumer education.

Categorise the following cases under different heads and mark against each in brackets.

(a) Lata got an electric shock from a newly purchased iron. She complained to the shopkeeper immediately. (      )

(b) John is dissatisfied with the services provided by MTNL for the past few months. He files a case in the District Consumer Forum. (      )

(c) Your friend has been sold a medicine that has crossed the expiry date and you are advising her to lodge a complaint. (      )

(d) Iqbal makes it a point to scan through all the particulars given on the pack of any items that he buys. (     )

(e) You are not satisfied with the services of the cable operator catering to your locality but you are unable to switch over to anybody else.  (      )

(f) You realise that you have received a defective camera from a dealer. You are complaining to the head office persistently. (      )

Ans. (a) Right to safety

(b) Right to redressal

(c) Right to information

(d) Right to consumer education

(e) Right to choice

(f) Right to representation

Questions in the Exercise

 Q.1. Why are the rules and regulations required in the marketplace? Illustrate with an example.

Ans. To protect the consumer from unfair trade practices, rules and regulations are required. This can be explained with the help of an example. A shopkeeper weighs less than the actual quantity or sells adulterated or defective goods. There should be some check on such activities.

Q.2. What factors gave birth to the consumer movement in India?

Ans. Unethical and unfair trade practices such as hoarding, black marketing etc, gave birth to the consumer movement in an organised manner in 1960.

Q.3. Explain the need for consumer consciousness by giving examples.

Ans. Consumer consciousness is being aware of your right as a consumer while buying any goods or services. Example : (i) It is common to see consumers bargaining with sellers for additional discounts below the MRP. (ii) Because of conscious consumers, most of the sweet shops do not include the weight of the container when they weigh sweets.

Q.4. Mention a few factors which cause exploitation of consumers.

Ans. Factors which cause exploitation of consumers are :

(i) Lack of awareness of consumer rights among buyers.

(ii) Improper and inadequate monitoring of rules and regulations.

(ii) Individual purchase quantity is quite small.

(iv) Consumers are scattered over large areas.

Q.5. What was the rationale behind the enactment of Consumer Protection Act 1986?

Ans. The rationale behind the enactment of COPRA 1986 was to set up a separate department of consumer affairs in Central and State governments and it has enabled us as consumers to have the right to represent in a consumer court.

Q.6. Describe  some of your duties as consumers when you buy any commodity from a shopping mall in your locality.

Ans. When a consumer buys any commodity, he/she should be aware of his or her rights and verify the following details given on the packing :

(i) The MRP of the product

(ii) Date of expiry of the product

(iii) Instructions for use

(iv) Address of the manufacturer.

For example, when a consumer buys medicines, he must read directions for proper use. The consumer should negotiate for a price which is either below MRP or equal to the MRP. Date of expiry should be much after the date of purchase. If the product does not match the written specification, the consumer can lodge a complaint with authorities and ask for compensation.

Q.7. Suppose you buy a bottle of honey and a biscuit packet. Which logo or mark you will have to look for and why?

Ans. We should look for Agmark symbol before buying the food items because this mark is certified by the government and assures the quality of the product.

Q.8. What legal measures were taken by the government to empower the consumers in India?

Ans. Consumers have the right to seek redressal against unfair trade practices and exploitation. If any damage is done to a consumer, he has the right to get compensation depending upon the degree of damage. This is covered under COPRA. The government has also introduced RTI – Right to Information Act – to empower the consumer.

Q.9. Mention some of the rights of consumers and write a few sentences on each.

Ans. Some of the rights of consumers are as follows :

(i) Right to choice — Any consumer who receives a service in whatever capacity, regardless of age, gender and nature of service, has the right to choose whether to continue to receive that service. Under this right, a consumer may also choose any one of the various brands of a product (say, a refrigerator) available in the market.

(ii) Right to redressal  — Consumers have the right to seek redressal against unfair trade practices and exploitation.

(iii) Right to represent — The act has enabled us as consumers to have the right to represent in the consumer courts.

Q.10. By what means can the consumers express their solidarity?

Ans. By way of Consumer Forums or Consumer Protection Councils, consumers can express their solidarity.

Q.11. Critically examine the progress of consumer movement in India.

Ans. Earlier there was no legal system available to consumers to protect them from exploitation in the marketplace. It was presumed that it was the responsibility of consumers to be careful while buying a commodity or service.

It took many years for organisations in India and around the world to create awareness among people.

In India, the consumer movement as a “social force” originated due to the necessity of protecting and promoting the interest of consumers against unethical and unfair trade practices. Hoarding, black marketing etc. gave birth  to consumer movement in an organised form in the 1960s. As a result of which, the government passed the Consumer Protection Act in 1986.

Example – Any businessman resorting to unfair means shall be taken to task by the different courts set up at the district, state and national levels. As a result, the consumers could be compensated for the loss they incurred by buying defective goods or getting poor services.

Q.12. Match the following :

(i) Availing details of ingredients of product (a) Right to safety

(ii) Agmark (b) Dealing with consumer cases

(iii) Accident due to faulty engine in a scooter (c) Certification of edible oil and cereals

(iv) District Consumer Court (d) Agency that develops standards for goods and services

(v) Consumers International (e) Right to information

(vi) Bureau of Indian Standards (f) Global level institution of consumer welfare organisation

Ans. (i) (e) (ii) (c) (iii) (a) (iv) (b) (v) (f) (vi) (d)

Q.13. Say True or False.

Ans. (i) COPRA applies only to goods.

(ii) India is one of the many countries in the world which have exclusive courts for consumer redressal.

(iii) When a consumer feels that he has been exploited, he must file a case in the District Consumer Court.

(iv) It is worthwhile to move to consumer courts only if the damages incurred are of high value.

(v) Hallmark is the certification maintained for standardisation of jewellery.

(vi) The consumer redressal process is very simple and quick.

(vii)A consumer has the right to get compensation depending on the degree of the damage.

Ans. (i) False (ii) True (iii) True (iv) False (v) True (vi) True (vii) True

Class IX - Pastoralists in the Modern World

NCERT TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS

Q.1. Explain why nomadic tribes need to move from one place to another. What are the advantages to the environment of this continuous movement?

Ans. Nomadic tribes need to move from one place to another to adjust to seasonal changes and make effective use of available pastures in different places. This pattern of cyclical movement between summer and winter pastures is typical of many pastoral communities of the Himalayas, including the Bhotias, Sherpas and Kinnauris. When the pastures were exhausted or unusable in one place they move with their flock to new

areas. This continuous movement also allowed the pastures to recover, it prevented their overuse.

Q.2. Discuss why the colonial government in India brought in the following laws. In each case, explain how the law changed the lives of pastoralists :

Ans. (i) Wasteland Rules - Wasteland Rules were enacted in various parts of the country. By these rules uncultivated land was taken over and given to select individuals. In most areas the lands taken over were actually grazing tracts used regularly by pastoralists. So expansion of cultivation inevitably meant decline of pastures and a problem for pastoralists.

(ii) Forests Acts  - Forests Acts were enacted to protect and preserve forests for timber which was of

commercial importance. These acts changed the life of pastoralists. They were now prevented from entering many forests that had earlier provided valuable forage for their cattle. They were issued permits which monitored their entry and exit into forests. They could not stay in the forests as much as they liked because the permit specified the number of days and hours they could spend in the forests. The permit ruled their lives.

(iii) Criminal Tribes Act — The colonial government wanted to rule over a settled population. They wanted the rural population to live a settled life in villages. People who moved from place to place were looked upon with suspicion and regarded as criminals. The Criminal Tribes Act was passed in 1871 by which many nomadic communities were declared as criminal tribes. They were supposed to be criminal by nature and birth. Once this Act came into force, these communities were expected to live in notified village settlements.

They were not allowed to move out without permits. The village police kept a continuous watch on them.

(iv) Grazing Tax  - Grazing Tax was imposed by the colonial government to expand its revenue income. Pastoralists had to pay a tax on every animal they grazed on the pastures. This right was now auctioned out to contractors. They extracted as high a tax as they could, to recover the money they had paid to the state and earn as much profit as they could. Later the government itself started collecting taxes. This created problems for the pastoralists who were harassed by tax collectors. It also became an economic burden on them.

Q.3. Give reasons to explain why the Maasai community lost their grazing lands.

Ans. The Maasais lost their grazing lands due to the following reasons :

(i) In 1885, Maasailand was cut into half with an international boundary between the British Kenya and German Tanganyika. The best grazing lands were gradually taken over for white settlement. The Maasai lost 60% of their pre-colonial lands.

(ii) From the late 18th century, the British colonial government in East Africa also encouraged local peasant communities to expand cultivation. As cultivation expanded, pasture lands were turned into cultivated fields.

(iii) Large areas of grazing land were also turned into game reserves like the Maasai Mara and Samburu National Park in Kenya. Pastoralists were not allowed to enter these reserves. Very often these reserves were in areas that had traditionally been regular grazing grounds for Maasai herds.

The loss of the finest grazing lands and water resources created pressure on the small area of land that the Maasai were confined within.

Q.4. There are many similarities in the way in which the modern world forced changes in the lives of pastoral communities in India and East Africa. Write about any two examples of changes which were similar for Indian pastoralists and the Maasai herders.

Ans. There are many similarities in the way in which the modern world forced changes in the lives of pastoral communities in India and East Africa. Here are two examples of changes which were similar for Indian pastoralists and the Maasai herders —

(i) All uncultivated land was seen as wasteland by colonial powers. It produced neither revenue nor agricultural produce. This land was brought under cultivation. In most areas the lands taken over were actually grazing tracts used regularly by pastoralists, so expansion of cultivation inevitably meant the decline of pastures and a problem both for Indian pastoralists and the Maasai.

(ii) From the 19th century onwards, the colonial government started imposing restrictions on the pastoral communities. They were issued permits which allowed them to move out with their stock and it was difficult to get permits without trouble and harassment. Those found guilty of disobeying the rules were severely punished.

Class X - Manufacturing Industries

TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS

Q.1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below :

(i) Which one of the following industries uses limestone as a raw material?

(a) Aluminium (b) Cement (c) Sugar (d) Jute

Ans. (b)

(ii) Which one of the following agencies markets steel for the public sector plants?

(a) HAIL (b) SAIL (c) TATA Steel (d) MNCC

Ans. (b)

(iii) Which one of the following industries uses bauxite as a raw material?

(a) Aluminium (b) Cement (c) Jute (d) Steel

Ans. (a)

(iv) Which one of the following industries manufactures telephones, computer, etc?

(a) Steel (b) Electronics (c) Aluminium (d) Information Technology

Ans. (b)

Q.2. Answer the following questions briefly.

(i) Why is iron and steel industry termed as basic industry?

Ans. Basic or key industries supply their products as raw materials to other industries to manufacture their goods.

Iron and steel industry is termed as a basic industry because

(a) it produces iron and steel which in turn is used for manufacturing machines, tools and equipments. Machineries and tools are basic for any manufacturing process. Thus, iron and steel industry plays a key role in the development of any manufacturing industry and agriculture.

(b) iron and steel industry provides raw materials for heavy engineering, automobiles, ship building, manufacturing of railway engines, locomotives, etc. The development of these industries is dependent on the supply of iron and steel.

Many of the items used by us in our daily life, from a tiny nail to big railway locomotives, are made of iron.

(ii) Describe four physical factors that affect the location of an industry.

Ans. Industrial locations are complex in nature. They are influenced by a number of factors that determine their location in region.

The physical factors that influence that location of industries are as follows :

(a) Availability of raw materials — Raw materials for industries range from agricultural products to minerals. Raw material required for the industry must be available cheaply and at close range or at well-linked places. In case of industries using bulky raw materials like iron, bauxite, etc., the ideal location is near the sources of raw materials.

(b) Power resources — Power, energy or fuel is essential for the working of any industry, for running machineries and as fuel for the furnaces and smelters. So, power resources like coal and electricity must be available in abundance in the vicinity of the site chosen for the industry.

(c) Water — Water is needed in abundance by almost all industries, e.g. cotton and jute textiles for processing, cleaning and cooling of machineries. So many industries are located near rivers and other water bodies.

(d) Favourable climate —  Climate affects production process, for example, humid climate is suitable for spinning of cotton yarns. The industry must be located in an area where the climate doesnot damage the raw materials or finished products.

(iii) Name any four human factors for the location of an industry.

 Human factors influencing the location of industries are :

(a) Labour — Cheap and efficient labour must be available in the region surrounding the industry for proper functioning of the industry.

(b) Capital — Industries require finances in large amounts. For setting up an industry in a chosen site, large amount of cash guarantees and banking facilities are required.

(c) Market — The goods produced must have a market for their sale. The market influences the demand as well as type of goods produced in a region.

(d) Transport facilities — Well-linked road, railways or waterways must be available for transfer of raw materials and manufactured products to and from the industrial area.

(iv) What are basic industries ? Give an example.

Basic or key industries are those which supply their products or raw materials to manufacture other goods e.g. iron and steel and copper smelting, aluminium smelting.

(v) Name the important raw materials used in the manufacturing of cement ?

Cement industry requires bulky and heavy raw materials like limestone, silica, alumina and

gypsum. Heavy costs are involved in the haulage of the raw materials. Hence, economically,

the ideal location for cement factories are near the sources of raw materials.

Apart from raw materials, coal and electric power is needed to provide energy for working of

the plants.

 

Q.3. Write the answers of the following questions in 120 words.

(i) How are integrated steel plants different from mini steel plants? Name the integrated steel plants of India. What are the problems faced by this industry? What is India’s present position with regard to manufacturing and consumption of iron and steel?

Ans. Mini steel plants are smaller, have electric and induction furnaces, and use steel scrap and sponge iron as raw material. They may have re-rollers manufacturing bar and rods. They produce mild and alloy steel and also liquid steel which are turned into ingots. They are decentralized secondary units scattered across the country to meet local demands.

An integrated steel plant is large and handles everything in one complex from assembling raw material and melting of iron ore in the blast furnace to steel making, rolling and shaping. They are usually concentrated near the sources of raw materials and market.

Presently there are 10 integrated steel plant in India, which are as follows :

(a) Indian Iron and Steel Company, IISCO at Kulti and Burnpur, West Bengal.

(b) Tata Iron and Steel Company, TISCO at Jamshedpur, Jharkhand.

(c) Visveswarayya Iron and Steel Plant, at Bhadravati, Karnataka.

(d) Bhilai Steel Plant, at Bhilai, Chhattisgarh.

(e) Bokaro Steel Plant, at Bokaro, Jharkhand.

(f) Durgapur Steel Plant, at Durgapur, West Bengal.

(g) Rourkela Steel Plant, at Rourkela, Orissa.

(h) Vishakhapatnam Steel Plant, at Vishakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh.

(i) Salem Steel Plant, Salem, Tamil Nadu.

(j) Vijayanagar Steel Plant in Karnataka.

Though India is an important iron and steel producing country in the world, we are not able to perform to our full potential largely due to the following problems faced by the industry:

(i) High costs and limited availability of coking coal.

(ii) Lower productivity of labour.

(iii) Irregular supply of energy.

(iv) Poor infrastructure.

Today with 32.8 million tonnes of steel production, India ranks ninth among the world crude steel producers.

It is the largest producer of sponge iron. In spite of large quantity of production of steel, per capita consumption of steel per annum is only 32 kg.

(ii) How do industries pollute the environment?

Ans. Pollution is a negative effect of industrialisation. It results in degradation of the environment and affects human health, animals, plants and the atmosphere as a whole.

It contributes to major environmental problems like land degradation, water scarcity, health hazards and, on a larger scale, global warming and climate change.

Industries are responsible for four types of pollution, namely, air, water, land and noise.

Air pollution is caused by presence of high proportion of undesirable gases, such as sulphur dioxide and carbon monoxide, dust, sprays, mist and smoke in the atmosphere due to emission from industrial units. Smoke emitted by chemical and paper factories, brick kilns, refineries and smelting plants and burning of fossil fuels in big and small factories that ignore pollution norms cause enormous pollution. Toxic gas leaks from factories are extremely hazardous.

Water pollution is caused by organic and inorganic industrial wastes and affluents discharged into rivers and other water bodies. The main culprits in this regard are paper, chemical textiles and dyeing, petroleum

refineries, tanneries and electroplating industries. They let out dyes, detergents, acids, salts and heavy metals like lead and mercury, pesticides, fertilisers, synthetic chemicals with carbon, plastics and rubber, etc., into water bodies. They turn big and small rivers into toxic streams.

Dumping of wastes specially glass, harmful chemicals, industrial effluents, packaging, salts and garbage renders the soil useless due to land pollution. Rainwater percolates to into the soil carrying these pollutants and contaminates ground water.

Noise pollution is by industrial and construction activities, machineries and factory equipments, generators, saws and pneumatic and electric drills.

(iii) Discuss the steps to be taken to minimise environmental degradation by industries.

Ans. Careful planning of industries, better design equipment and better operation of the equipments can prevent pollution to a great extent. Some measures to control industrial pollution are

(a) Restricting use of fossil fuels can reduce smoke. Air pollution can be reduced by reduction of particulate matter, aerosol emission in the air by fitting smoke stacks to factories with electrostatic precipitators, fabric filters, scrubbers and inertial separators.

(b) Water pollution can be controlled by (i) minimising use of freshwater by reusing and recycling (ii) Treatment of hot water effluents before releasing them in rivers and other water bodies. These include mechanical, biological, chemical and physical processes.

(c) Land pollution can be controlled by collection of wastes, dumping and disposing the wastes in filling areas and recycling the wastes.

(d) Machinery and equipments and generators can be fitted with silencers or redesigned to make them energy efficient and to reduce noise.

Class X - Globalisation and the Indian Economy

NCERT TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS

Questions in the Exercise

Q.1. What do you understand by globalisation? Explain in your own words.

Ans. Globalisation means integrating the economy of a country with the economies of other countries under conditions of free flow of trade, capital and movement of persons across borders. It includes

(i) Increase in foreign trade

(ii) Export and import of techniques of production.

(iii) Flow of capital and finance from one country to another

(iv) Migration of people from one country to another.

Q.2. What was the reasons for putting barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment by the Indian government? Why did it wish to remove these barriers?

Ans. The Indian government had put barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment because at that time it was necessary to protect the Indian producers from the foreign competition.

In New Economic Policy in 1991, it was thought by the government to remove these barriers so that Indian producers can compete with producers around the globe. Thus competition improves the quality of their products.

Q.3. How would flexibility in labour laws help companies?

Ans. Flexibility in labour laws helps companies to cut down the cost of production. Now, instead of hiring workers on a regular basis, companies hire workers flexibly for short periods and this reduces the cost of labour for the company.

Q.4. What are the various ways  in which MNCs set up or control production in other countries?

Ans.  Multinational Corporations (MNCs) set up their factories or production units close to markets where they can get desired type of skilled or unskilled labour at low costs along with other factors of production. After ensuring these conditions MNCs set up production units in the following ways :

(a) Jointly with some local companies of the existing country.

(b) Buy the local companies and then expand its production with the help of modern technology.

(c) They place orders for small producers and sell these products under their own brand name to the customers worldwide.

Q.5. Why do developed countries want developing countries to liberalise their trade and investment? What do you think should the developing countries demand in return?

Ans. Developed countries feel that all barriers to foreign trade and investment are harmful for international trade. They want that trade between countries should be free. Developed countries like the USA and UK have high production capacity and latest technology.

Developing countries should demand fair globalisation which ensures opportunities and benefits for all. Interest of the workers should also be taken care of.

Q.6. “The impact of globalisation has not been uniform.” Explain this statement.

Ans. While globalisation has benefited the well-off consumers and also producers with skill, education and wealth, many small producers and workers have suffered as a result of the rising competition.

Q.7. How has liberalisation of trade and investment policies helped the globalisation process?

Ans. Liberalisation of trade and investment has facilitated globalisation by removing barriers to trade and investment.

At international level, WTO has put pressure on developing couintries to liberalise trade and investment.

Q.8. How does foreign trade lead to integration of markets across countries? Explain with an example.

Ans. Foreign trade provides opportunities for both producers and buyers to reach beyond the markets of their own countries. Goods travel from one country to another.

Competition among producers of various countries as well as buyers prevails. Thus foreign trade leads to integration of markets across countries. For example, during Diwali season, buyers in India have the option of choosing between Indian and Chinese decorative lights and bulbs. So this provides an opportunity to expand business.

Q.9. Globalisation will continue in the future. Can you imagine what the world would be like twenty years from now? Give reason for your answer.

Ans. After twenty years, world would undergo a positive change which will possess the following features—healthy competition, improved productive efficiency, increased volume of output, income and employment, better living standards, greater availability of information and modern technoloy.

Reason for the views given above : These are the favourable factors for globalisation :

(a) Availability of human resources both quantitywise and qualitywise.

(b) Broad resource and industrial base of major countries.

(c) Growing entrepreneurship

(d) Growing domestic market.

Q.10. Supposing you find two people. One is saying globalisation has hurt our country’s development. The other is telling, globalisation is helping India develop. How would you respond to these arguments?

Ans. Benefits of globalisation of India :

(a) Increase in the volume of trade in goods and services

(b) Inflow of private foreign capital and export orientation of the economy.

(c) Increases volume of output, income and employment.

Negative Impact / Fears of Globalisation.

(a) It may not help in achieving sustainable growth.

(b) It may lead to widening of income inequalities among various countries.

(c) It may lead to aggravation of income inequalities within countries.

Whatever may be the fears of globalisation, I feel that it has now become a process which is catching the fancy of more and more nations. Hence we must become ready to accept globalisation with grace and also maximise economic gains from the world market.

Q.11. Fill in the blanks :

Indian buyers have a greater choice of goods than they did two decades back. This is closely associated with the process of         (1)          . Markets in India are selling goods produced in many other countries. This means there is increasing        (2)         with other countries. Moreover, the rising number of brands that we see in the market might be produced by MNCs in India. MNCs are investing in India because               (3)               . While consumers have more choices in the market, the effect of rising         (4)           and         (5)           has meant greater        (6)         among the producers.

Ans. (1) Globalisation (2) Trade (3) They can get cheap labour (4) Prices (5) Standard (6) Competition

Q.12. Match the following.

(i) MNCs buy at cheap rates from small producers (a) Automobiles

(ii) Quota and taxes on imports are used to (b) Garment, footwear, sports

regulate trade items

(iii) Indian companies who have invested abroad (c) Call centres

(iv) It has helped in spreading of production of services. (d) Tata Motors, Infosys, Ranbaxy

(v) Several MNCs have invested in setting up factories (e) Trade barriers.

in India for production of

 Ans. (i) (b) (ii) (e) (iii) (d) (iv) (c) (v) (a)

Q.13. Choose the most appropriate option.

(i) The past two decade of globalisation has seen rapid movements of

(a) goods, services and people between countries.

(b) goods, services and investments between countries.

(c) goods, investment and people between countries.

(ii) The most common route for investments by MNCs in countries around the world is to

(a) set up new factories.

(b) buy existing local companies.

(c) form partnership with local companies.

(iii) Globalisation has led to improvement in living conditions

(a) of all the people

(b) of people in the developed countries.

(c) of workers in the developing countries.

(d) none of the above.

Ans. (i) (a) (ii) (b) (iii) (c)

SSTSE Sample paper and Syllabus

SSTSE Sample paper and Syllabus 
http://www.scribd.com/doc/114748075/SSTSE-SampleQuestions-1
http://www.scribd.com/doc/114748055/SSTSE-Syllabus