NTSE Stage I & II 2021-22 has been postponed by NCERT
Have designed this blog keeping in mind the requirements of the school going students, though many of the topics can be beneficial for others also but main target is to cater the needs of CBSE school going children. Will try my best to cater to their other needs also like - material related to various competitive exams will be posted on the blog, so that other then their regular studies, students can concentrate on competitive exams also.
Wednesday, 15 December 2021
Students will be able to access their scanned OMR of CBSE Term I 2021 exams
A campaign was started on various platforms
raising objections on the shortcomings of CBSE Term I 2021 exams, and now it seems some of the objections are getting entertained by CBSE
According to a news published in Times of India- CBSE will not announce the results of the Term-1 Board exams currently under way. Around mid-January, the candidates will be able to access their scanned OMR (optical mark recognition) answer sheets online and get to know their scores. The Board is also working out alternative arrangements for candidates who have missed the Term-1 exams due to Covid. The details are likely to be announced soon. CBSE will give free access to evaluated answer sheets.
“Once the scanning of the OMR answer sheets are completed, which will take around a month, they will be made available to the candidates. Candidates will be able to access them using their credentials,“Right now this facility is only for Term-1 MCQ-based exams. The candidates can assess their performance and in case of any grievances they can approach us. This is to make the exams more transparent,” the official said.
Several candidates could not appear for the Term 1 exam due to their Covid infection. The Board is mulling a number of options for them, which, according to CBSE sources, include giving double marks in the Term-2 exams or arrange for a proctored online exam. “A decision on this is likely to be taken at the end of this month. Of course, the interest of the candidates will be protected and in case anyone is infected they should not come for the exam,” said the official.
Saturday, 11 December 2021
Don't forget to look at the sky today Evening
Look up the sky today Evening!
The moon and its planetary pals are putting up quite a show and on Sunday, 12 December, and stargazers will be provided with a spectacular celestial showcase.
From 6-10 December, one will be able to see three planets, and then on 12 December, you will be able to see five planets.
In addition to this, there will also be a crescent moon, making it easier to see the planets.
According to astronomers, Jupiter, Saturn and Venus and the moon will line up and appear to the naked eye.
If that isn't enough of a reason to look up, the Geminid meteor shower will also streak through the sky.
According to NASA, the Geminids, which happen every December, are "one of the best and most reliable annual meteor showers."
Peter Brown, an astronomy professor at Western University in London, Ontario, who studies meteor showers goes further, calling it the "strongest meteor shower of the year."
Tuesday, 7 December 2021
Rajasthan NTSE Stage I - Previous Year Papers (NCERT Based)
Here are the Rajasthan NTSE Stage I - Previous Year Papers (NCERT Based)
Rajasthan NTSE Stage I 2021-22 will be held according to the revised syllabus (due to Corona Pandemic), so while going through the Previous years papers students must be aware of revised syllabus and practice only those questions which are part of the revised syllabus.
RBSE has opted for NCERT books for Class IX to XII, so now Rajasthan NTSE Stage I will be covering the syllabus of NCERT Books of Class IX and X ( from 2018 to 2020 RBSE had a different syllabus based on Rajasthan curriculum, so NTSE Stage I papers of 2018 to 2020 are not applicable now for the preparation of Rajasthan NTSE Stage I (Social Science Section)
Previous Years Papers of Rajasthan NTSE
Tuesday, 30 November 2021
Monday, 29 November 2021
Official Answer Key and Feedback form of NTSE Stage II 2020
NCERT has also issued the format to submit caste/category certificate, if not submitted earlier
Additional practice Questions for CBSE Term I (Class X & XII)
Additional Practice Questions for Class X and XIIThese are additional questions for use by students/teachers and are based on the complete syllabus. | ||||||||||||||
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http://www.cbseacademic.nic.in/additionalPQ.html |
Notification & Application for Uttar Pradesh NTSE Stage I 2021-22
Exam Regulatory Authority Uttar Pradesh has issued the Notification & Application for UP NTSE Stage I 2021-22
Notification for Rajasthan NTSE Stage I 2021-22
RBSE has issued the Notification & Application for Rajasthan NTSE Stage I 2021-22
Last date for schools to submit Applications - 8th December 2021
With late fees - 14th December 2021
http://www.bserexam.net/BsErSTSE2021/mainpage.phpApplication form for Haryana NTSE Stage I 2021-22
SCERT Harayana has issued the application form for Haryana NTSE Stage I 2021-22
Saturday, 20 November 2021
Term I 2021-22 Social Science Sample Paper (SET B)
TIME: 90 MINUTES MM – 40 MARKS
General Instructions:
1. The Question paper consists four sections.
2. Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section B has 22 questions. Attempt any 18 questions.
4. Section C has 12 questions (Case based) Attempt any 10 questions.
5. Section D contains 2 Map based questions. Attempt both the questions.
6. All questions carry equal marks.
7. There is no negative marking.
SECTION - A (Attempt any 20 out of 24 questions) | |
1 | Among Haryana, Kerala and Bihar, the lowest per-capita income state is Bihar. It shows that (a) Bihar has high standard of living (b) People are earning less in Kerala (c) Maharashtra has a greater number of rich people (d) On an average, people in Bihar have low income |
2 | Prudential reasons of power sharing stress on the facts that : A) It ensures the stability of political order B) It reduces the possibility of conflict between social groups C) It gives a fair share to minority D) It is the very spirit of democracy Which of the above statements are correct? a) Both A and B b) A,C and D c) A,B and C d) All are correct |
3 | Net Attendance Ratio is the total number of children of age group _____ attending schools as a percentage of total number of children in the same age group (a) 0-3 years (b) 8-10 years (c) 5-7 years (d) 14-15 years |
4 | In dealing with power sharing, which one of the following statements is NOT correct about democracy? A) People are the source of all political power. B) In a democracy, people rule themselves through institutions of self governance. |
C) In a democracy, due respect is given to diverse groups and views that exist in a society. D) In a democracy, if the power to decide is dispersed, it is not possible to take quick decisions and enforce them. | |
5 | Which among the following is not a public facility? (a) Transport and electricity (b) Roads and bridges (c) Private schools (d) Government hospitals |
6 | ___ shows the value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a particular year and this is how it reflects the size of economy. (a) Gross Net Product (GNP) (b) Gross Domestic Product (GDP) (c) National Income (d) Growth Rate |
7 | Name the regions where Indian Tamils are concentrated: a) South Western Sri Lanka b) Central Sri Lanka c) Northern and Eastern Sri Lanka d) None of the above |
8 | Read the extract given below and identify the state: In 2016 India was the second largest producer of groundnut in the world after China. Groundnut is a kharif crop and accounts for about half of the major oilseeds produced in the county. The second largest producer of groundnut in India is _________________ a. Rajasthan b. Kerala c. Andhra Pradesh d. Tamil Nadu |
9 | Which of the following sector deals with intangibles? (a) Primary (b) Secondary (c) Tertiary (d) both (b) and (c) |
10 | Arrange the following in the correct sequence: (I)Slav nationalism was the go-to force in the Habsburg and Ottoman Empires (ii) Unification of Germany (iii) Victor Emmanuel II was declared as the king of united Italy and Rome was declared the capital of Italy (iv) The Prussian King, William I was proclaimed the German Emperor. a) (iv) -(ii)-(iii)-(I) b) (iii)-(iv)-(ii)-(I) c) (iii)-(ii)-(iv)-(I) d) (i)-(ii)-(iii)-(iv) |
11 | Which of the following is a final good? (a) Bread used by a baker to make sandwiches (b) Bread used by a family to make sandwiches (c) Electricity used by a factory for its production process (d) None of the above |
12 | Which is the right condition for the growth of Maize? A) Temperature between 21 to 27 degrees Celsius and old alluvial soil. B) Temperature below 17 degree Celsius and shallow black soil. |
C) Temperature of 25 degrees Celsius and 200 cm of rainfall. D) None of the above | |
13 | ________ emerged as an independent country in 1947. a) Sri Lanka b) Belgium c) Lebanon d) None of the above |
14 | Choose the Correctly matched pair about the major crops of India from the following options: A) Millets – North Eastern part of the country B) Wheat – Norh Western part of the country C) Pulses – south western part of the county D) Rice – South eastern part of the country |
15 | Analyse the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: He was perhaps the most celebrated of Italian freedom fighter. He came from a family engaged in coastal trade and was a sailor in the merchant navy. In 1833, he met Mazzini, joined the young Italy movement and participated in a Republican uprising in Piedmont in 1834. a) Otto von Bismarck b) Giuseppe Mazzini c) Count Camillio de Cavour d) Giuseppe Garibaldi |
16 | Assertion – Tyranny of majority is highly desirable. Reason – It makes the political order unstable a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A c) A is true and R is false d) A is false and R is true |
17 | Arrange the following in the correct sequence from top to bottom as per the soil profile. (I) Sub soil (ii)Top soil (iii) Weathered parent rock material (iv) Un weathered parent bed rock a) (I) - (iii)- (iv)-(ii) b) (ii)-(I)-(iii)-(iv) c) (I)-(ii)-(iv)- (iii) d) (ii)- (iii)-(iv)-(I) |
18 | Assertion – French speaking community in Belgium was rich and powerful. Reason – Belgian government favored French speaking community. a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A |
c) A is true and R is false d) A is false and R is true | |
19 | Identify the personality: 1. He was an Austrian Chancellor 2. He heard the congress of vienna 3. He said” When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold” Choose the right option: a) Garibaldi b) Napoleon c) Duke Metternich d) Lord Byron |
20 | Assertion- Power Sharing among different levels of the government is horizontal form of power sharing. Reason – Horizontal form of power sharing allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers. a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A c) A is true and R is false d) A is false and R is true |
21 | The processes of ______and ______go on simultaneously and generally there is a balance between the two. A) Denudation and erosion. B) Soil formation and erosion C) Soil formation and denudation D) Climatic condition and soil erosion |
22 | Read the source and answer the question that follows: The model of the nation or the nation-state, some scholars have argued, is GreatBritain. In Britain the formation of the nation state was not the result of a sudden upheaval or revolution. It was the result of a long-drawn-out process. There was no British nation prior to the eighteenth century. 1.Ethnic people who inhabited the British Isles are ____ a) English b) Welsh C) Scot or Irish D ) All the above |
23 | Arrange the following in the correct sequence: Resource planning in India which involves: (I) Evolving a planning structure endowed with appropriate technology, skill and institutional set up for implementing resource development plans. |
(ii) Identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country. This involves surveying, mapping and qualitative and quantitative estimation and measurement of the resources. (iii) Matching the resource development plans with overall national development plans. Choose the right option: a) (i)-(ii)-(iii) b) (iii)-(i)-(ii) c) (ii)-(i)-(iii) d) (i)- (iii) -(ii) | |
24 | How did the congress of Vienna ensure peace in Europe? select the appropriate option: A ) With the restoration of Bourbon dynasty. B) Austria was not under the control of Northern Italy. C) Laying out a balance of power between all the great powers in Europe. D) By giving power to German confederation. |
SECTION – B (Attempt any 18 out of 22 questions) | |
25 | Which one of the following is not a measure of development in the Human Development Report of the UNDP? (a) Per capita income in US $. (b) Educational Levels of the people (c) Body Mass Index (d) Life Expectancy at Birth |
26 | Which one of the following options best signifies this cartoon ? a) The State representatives are begging before the Central government b) The Central government is undermining the spirit of Federalism c) A lady is disturbing food to the beggars d) None of the above |
27 | Assertion(A): Non-renewable resources cannot be replenished in a given period of time. Reason(R): They are abundant in nature. |
Choose the appropriate alternative: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. | |||||||||||
28 | In which year, a major step was taken towards decentralisation? (a)In 1995 (b) In 1994 (c) In 1992 (d) In 2000 | ||||||||||
29 | Which of the following pair is incorrect? a) State government – State List b) Central government- Union list c) Central and State – Concurrent list d) Local government – Residuary list | ||||||||||
30 | Assertion – Organic farming is much in Vogue. Reason – In Organic farming crops are grown using high doses of modern inputs to increase the production. (a) Both A & R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A & R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is correct but R is wrong (d ) Both A & R are wrong | ||||||||||
31 | “Consequences of environmental degradation do not respect national or state boundaries.” Which of the following is the essence of this statement? (a) Economic development (b) Human Development (c) Sustainable Development (d) National Development | ||||||||||
32 | Match the columns:j
Options: A) (I)- B , (ii)-C, (iii) - D , (iv) -A B) (I)- D , (ii)-C, (iii) - B , (iv) -A C) (I)- C, (ii)-D, (iii) - A , (iv) -B D) (I)- A , (ii)-B, (iii) - C , (iv) -D |
33 | Assertion – The first clear expression of Nationalism came with the French Revolution in 1789. Reason – The French Revolutionaries declared that it was the mission and the destiny of the French nation to help other people of Europe to become nations. (c) Both A & R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A (d) Both A & R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is correct but R is wrong (d ) Both A & R are wrong |
34 | A government official is working in a post which is redundant now. The new organizational structure had made his profile meaningless. Which type of unemployment is this an example? (a) Under employment (b) Disguised unemployment (c) Educated unemployment (d) Both (a) and (b) |
35 | Assertion – During the British period cotton belts of India attracted the British and ultimately silk was exported to Britain as a raw material for their textile industries. Reason – Cotton textile industry in Manchester and Liverpool flourished due to the availability of good quality cotton from India. a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A c)A is true and R is false d)A is false and R is true |
36 | Which one of the following states was ruled by an Italian princely house before unification of Italy. A)Ecombardy B) Kingdom of two sicilies C) Venetia D) Sardinia- Piedmont |
37 |
(a)Heroism (b) Willingness to make peace (c) Readiness to Fight (d)Symbol of freedom | |
38 | Assertion – Third tier of government is local government Reason – It made democracy stumble a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A c) A is true and R is false |
39 | Arrange the following in correct sequence: (I)Treaty of Constantinople (ii) First upheaval took place in France (iii) Lord Byron died (iv) Greek struggle for Independence begins Options: A) (I)-(ii)-(iii)-(iv) B) (ii)-(iv)-(I)-(iii) C) (iv)- (iii)-(ii)-(I) D) (iii)-(iv)-(ii) -(I) |
40 | Statement 1: There are several things needed by the society as a whole but which the public sector will not provide at a reasonable cost. Statement 2: Some of these needs spending large sums of money, which is beyond the capacity of the public sector. Also, collecting money from thousands of people who use these facilities is not easy. Even if they do provide these things, they would charge a high rate for their use. Choose the appropriate alternative: (a) Both statements are true (b) Both statements are false (c) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false |
(d) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 is false | |
41 | Taking a hint from the given picture identify what this woman is engaged in? (a)Sowing the tea and coffee seeds (b) Plucking coffee beans (c) Pruning tea bushes (d) Plucking tea leaves |
42 | Resources which are surveyed and their quality and quantity have been determined for utilization is known as____ A) Potential resources B) Stock C) Developed resource D) Reserve |
43 | ______________is a public policy think tank of the Government of India, which suggested various new avenues for increasing employment. (a) Ministry of Finance (b) National Sample Survey Organization (c) Census (d) NITI Ayog |
44 | TRUE/ FALSE Statement 1-Ninety-five per cent of our basic needs for food, shelter and clothing are obtained from land. Statement 2- Land is an utmost important natural resource supporting vegetation, wild life, human life, etc. A. Only Statement 1 is true B. Only Statement 2 is true C. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true D. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are false |
45 | The crop in the picture is the main source of A. gur B. molasses C. khandsari D. all the above. |
46 | Assertion- India has a federal system. Reason- Under a unitary system, either there is only one level of government or the sub units are subordinate to central government. a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A c) A is true and R is false d) A is false and R is true |
SECTION –C (This section consists of two cases. There are total of 12 questions in this section. Attempt any 10 questions from this section) | |
Answers the question numbers 47 to 52 with reference to the case study given below More than half of the workers in the country are working in the primary sector, mainly in agriculture, producing only a quarter of the GDP. In contrast to this, the secondary and tertiary sectors produce four fifth of the produce whereas they employ less than half the people. Does this mean that the workers in agriculture are not producing as much as they could? There are also people who are not employed at all. In what ways can one increase employment for people? | |
47 | The secondary and tertiary sectors produce four-fifth of the produce whereas they employ less than half the people. Why? (a) Its goods are limited to few sections of the society (b) It requires skilled and educated workers (c) It requires too much capital (d) It offers very less wages |
48 | The other name for the secondary sector is (a) service sector (b) manufacturing sector (c) industrial sector (d) both (b) and (c) |
49 | Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding tertiary sector? |
(a) the activities under tertiary sector help in development of the primary and secondary sector (b) The activities of tertiary sector by themselves, do not produce a good but aid or support for the production process (c) In the past 100 years, there has been a further shift from tertiary to secondary sector in developed countries (d) While production in the service sector rose by 14 times, employment in the service sector rose around five times | |
50 | What are the reasons for the high concertation of workforce in agriculture sector despite a fall in its share of GDP? (i) increased profitability in agriculture (ii) disguised unemployment in agriculture (iii) seasonal unemployment in agriculture (iv) lack of skilled labour in agriculture Select the appropriate option (a) (i) only (b) (ii) and (iv) (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii) only |
51 | Which sector has become the most important in terms of total production in the past 100 years? (a) Primary sector (b) Secondary sector (c) Tertiary sector (d) All of the above |
52 | Local companies decide not to buy sugarcane from the Indian market and import all that they need from other countries. Which of the following statements holds relevance in the situation given above: (a) Primary sector depends on tertiary sector (b) Secondary sector depends on tertiary sector (c) Primary sector depends on secondary sector (d) All of the above |
53 | Answer question no. 53-58 with reference to the case study given below: - Belgium is a small country in Europe. It shares its borders with France, Netherlands, Germany and Luxembourg. The ethnic composition of Belgium is very complex. Brussels is the capital of Belgium. Sri Lanka is an island nation. It is a few kilometers off the southern coast of Tamil Nadu. Tamil natives of Sri Lanka are called “Sri Lankan Tamils”. ‘Indian Tamils’ are those whose fore fathers came from India as plantation workers during the colonial period. Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948. The democratically elected government adopted a series of majoritarian measures to adopt a Sinhala supremacy. In 1956 an act was passed to declare Sinhala as official language. The government recognised Sinhala applicants for university jobs and governments jobs. |
The Belgian leaders recognised the existence of regional differences and cultural diversities. They amended their constitution four times between 1970 and 1993 Constitution prescribes that the number of Dutch and French–speaking ministers shall be equal in the central government. The state governments are not subordinate to the central government. Brussels has a separate government in which both the communities have equal representation. Apart from the central and state government there is a third kind of government elected by people called as “community government”. | |
53 | Who elects the community government in Belgium? a) People belonging to one language community only b) By the leaders of Belgium c) The citizens of the whole country d) The community leaders of Belgium |
54 | Which language is spoken by the majority of Belgians in the country? a)German b) French c) Dutch d) English |
55 | The ratio of Sinhala speaking and Tamil speaking in Sri Lanka is : a)20:80 b) 50:50 c) 70:30 d) 80:20 |
56 | The process of dominance over the government by virtue of majority is seen in which country? a) Bangladesh b) Belgium c) Sri Lanka d) Netherlands |
57 | Area of Belgium is : a) Equals to Haryana b) Greater than Haryana c) Smaller than Haryana d) Equals to Europe |
58 | Belgium shares it’s border with: a) France b) Germany c) Luxembourg d) All of the above |
Section –D (Attempt both the Map based questions) | |
59 | On the outline map of India, two items are marked as A and B. Identify the locations with the help of specified information. |
The place marked (A) in the map shows a multipurpose project that has become a cause of many new social movements. A. Bhakranangal B. Sardarsarovar dam C. Hirakud dam D. Nagarjunasagar dam | |
60 | Identify the type of soil marked ‘ B ‘from the following options: A) Alluvial soil B) Red soil C) Laterite soil D) Arid soil |
Answer - 1. (D), 2. (C), 3. (D), 4. (D), 5.(C), 6.(B), 7. (C), 8.(B), 9.(C), 10.(C), 11. (B), 12. (A), 13. (D), 14. (B), 15.(D), 16.(D), 17. (B), 18.(A), 19.(C), 20.(D), 21. (B), 22. (D), 23. (C), 24. (C), 25.(C), 26.(B), 27. (C), 28.(C), 29.(D), 30.(C), 31. (C), 32. (C), 33. (B), 34. (D), 35.(D), 36.(D), 37. (B), 38.(C), 39.(C), 40.(B), 41. (D), 42. (C), 43. (D), 44. (C), 45.(D), 46.(B), 47. (B), 48.(D), 49.(C), 50.(D), 51. (C), 52. (D), 53. (A), 54. (C), 55.(D), 56.(C), 57. (C), 58.(D), 59.(B), 60.(C).