Saturday 29 December 2012

Class IX - Democratic Rights



MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
Q.1. What was the reason given by America for imprisoning people at Guantanamo Bay?
(a) They had been caught spying.
(b) They were planning to kill the US President.
(c) They were planning to set up a Communist government in USA.
(d) America considered them as enemies and linked them to the attack on New York on 11th September, 2001.
Ans. (d)
Q.2. Which body exposed to the world that prisoners at Guantanamo Bay were being tortured in ways that violated the US laws?
(a) United Nations (b) International Court of Justice (c) Amnesty International (d) Supreme Court of USA
Ans. (c)
Q.3. Which of these options is not correct regarding Saudi Arabian political system?
(a) The king selects the executive, legislature and judiciary
(b) Citizens cannot form political parties
(c) There is no freedom of religion (d) None of the above
Ans. (d)
Q.4. What is the position of women in Saudi Arabia?
(a) Women are given all the rights (b) Women are given equal status with men
(c) Women are subjected to many public restrictions (d) They are offered high positions
Ans. (c)
Q.5. Of which country was Kosovo a province before its split?
(a) USSR (b) Yugoslavia (c) South Africa (d) Germany
Ans. (b)
Q.6. What was Milosevic’s attitude towards the Albanians?
(a) His government was hostile to the Kosovo Albanians
(b) He wanted to bring equality between Serbs and Albanians
(c) He wanted Serbs to dominate the Albanians
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Ans. (d)
Q.7. How was the massacre of Albanians finally stopped?
(a) The UN ordered for Milosevic’s arrest
(b) Several countries intervened to stop the massacre
(c) The Serbs turned against Milosevic
(d) Milosevic reformed himself
Ans. (b)
Q.8. What was the result of the intervention of other countries to stop the killings of Albanians?
(a) Milosevic lost power and was tried for crimes against humanity
(b) The other countries were punished by UNO for interfering in another country
(c) Led to further army action by Milosevic (d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
Q.9. What is meant by ‘rights’?
(a) One’s demand to get everything without sharing with others
(b) Claims of a person over other fellow beings, society and the government
(c) Not possessing any freedoms (d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
Q.10. Which of these statements about the relationship between democracy and rights is more valid?
(a) Every country that is a democracy gives rights to its citizens
(b) Every country that gives rights to its citizens is a democracy
(c) Giving rights is good, but it is not necessary for a democracy
(d) All the above
Ans. (b)
Q.11. What can be done in case of infringement of the rights in a democracy?
(a) Citizens are helpless; they cannot do anything
(b) They can approach courts to protect their rights
(c) They can ask their representatives to do the needful
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
Q.12. The government is responsible for providing free and compulsory education to all the children up to the age of :
(a) 16 years (b) 12 years (c) 18 years (d) 14 years
Ans. (d)
Q.13. Under which Fundamental Right has the Parliament enacted a law giving the Right to Information to the citizens?
(a) Right to freedom of religion (b) Right to freedom of thought and expression
(c) Right to freedom of equality (d) Right to constitutional remedies
Ans. (b)
Q.14. Which of these is/are the new rights guaranteed by the constitution of South Africa for its citizens?
(a) Right to privacy
(b) Right to an environment that is not harmful to the people’s health
(c) Right to have access to adequate housing (d) All the above
Ans. (d)
Q.15. Which of these is not seen as a standard of human rights by the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights?
(a) Right to social security and insurance (b) Right to health
(c) Right to accumulate wealth (d) Right to adequate standard of living
Ans. (c)
Q.16. The right to seek the enforcement of all Fundamental Rights is called :
(a) Right against Exploitation (b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies (d) Cultural and Educational Rights
Ans. (c)
Q.17. If our Fundamental Rights are violated, where can we seek the remedy?
(a) Supreme Court or High Courts (b) Parliament
(c) Election Commission (d) Council of Ministers
Ans. (a)
Q.18. What did Dr. Ambedkar refer to the ‘Right to Constitutional Remedies’ as?
(a) The brain of our Constitution (b) The heart and soul of our Constitution
(c) The heart of our Constitution (d) The soul of our Constitution
Ans. (b)
Q.19. What is meant by the term ‘writ’?
(a) Written laws
(b) A formal document containing an order of the court to the government
(c) Basic features of the Constitution (d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
Q.20. Which of the following is not an instance of an exercise of a Fundamental Right?
(a) Workers from Bihar go to Punjab to work on the farms
(b) Parents’ property is inherited by their children
(c) Christian mission sets up a chain of missionary schools
(d) Religion is not taken into consideration during admission in schools
Ans. (b)
Q.21. When was the NHRC set up?
(a) 1998 (b) 1996 (c) 1993 (d) 2001
Ans. (c)
Q.22. How many Fundamental Rights does the Indian constitution provide?
(a) 7 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 8
Ans. (b)
Q.23. Which of the following terms is correct for the feature of the Indian constitution stating
that no person is above the law?
(a) State of law (b) Application of law
(c) Rule of law (d) Governance by law
Ans. (c)
Q.24. What does ‘Right to Equality’ say about the public jobs?
(a) Jobs will be provided to all by the government
(b) Jobs will be reserved for the more meritorious students
(c) All citizens will be provided with equal opportunity in matters of employment
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
Q.25. What does the Constitution say about the practice of untouchability?
(a) It stands abolished
(b) Its practice in any form is punishable by law
(c) Since it is an age-old custom, it should be respected
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
Q.26. Which of these is false regarding the Freedom of Speech and Expression?
(a) Everyone has a right to think differently
(b) One may disagree with a policy of the government
(c) One can use it to incite people against the government
(d) One is free to criticise the government
Ans. (c)
Q.27. Which of these rights is/are provided to a person arrested by the government or police?
(a) To be informed of the reasons of his arrest
(b) To be produced before a magistrate within 24 hrs of his arrest
(c) To engage a lawyer for his defence (d) All the above
Ans. (d)
Q.28. One of the forms of exploitation as mentioned in the constitution is ‘traffic’. What does it mean?
(a) Transport system (b) Buying and selling of human beings
(c) Buying and selling of goods (d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
Q.29. What is meant by ‘begar’?
(a) Practice of begging
(b) Practice of forcing workers to work without any wages
(c) Practice of encouraging workers to work at normal wages
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Ans. (b)
Q.30. Laws have been made to prohibit childern from working in which of these industries?
(a) Beedi making (b) Fire crackers and matches
(c) Printing and dyeing (d) All the above
Ans. (d)
Q.31. Which of the following freedom is not available to an Indian citizen?
(a) Freedom to start a movement ot change the government
(b) Freedom to oppose the government
(c) Freedom to participate in armed revolution
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
Q.32. Which among the following cannot be challenged in a court?
(a) Directive principles of state policy (b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Freedom to choose any profession or business
(d) Right to move freely to any part of the country.
Ans. (b)
Q.33. Cultural and Educational Rights are safeguarded mainly for :
(a) Women (b) minorities (c) children (d) Men
Ans. (b)
Q.34. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right? 
(a) Right to Freedom (b) Right to Vote (c) Right to Equality (d) None of these
Ans. (b)
Q.35. Which of the following rights is not available under the fundamental rights?
(a) Right to Equality (b) Right to Freedom (b) Right to protect one’s culture (d) Right to property.
Ans. (d)
Q.36. India is a secular state. What does the word ‘secular’ mean?
(a) The state gives protection to the Hindu religion
(b) The state allows only the majority to propagate their religion
(c) The state has no religion of its own (d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
Q.37. Which one of the following fundamental rights is called the heart and soul of Indian constitution?
(a) Right to equality (b) Right to constitutional remedies
(c) Right to freedom (d) Right to freedom of religion
Ans. (b)
Q.38. Civil Rights are given to the individual by:
(a) Nature (b) God (c) The State (d) The people
Ans. (c)
Q.39. The Indian Constitution prescribes Fundamental Rights in :
(a) part III (b) part VII (c) part V (d) part IV
Ans. (a)
Q.40. Which one of the following rights is available to the citizens of India and not to the citizens of Saudi Arabia?
(a) The country is ruled by a hereditary king
(b) Citizens cannot form political parties
(c) Women are subjected to many public restrictions
(d) Citizens enjoy the freedom of religion
Ans. (d)
Q.41. Who called the right to constitutional remedies as the heart and soul of the constitution?
(a) J.L. Nehru (b) B. R. Ambedkar (c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Rajendra Prasad
Ans. (b)
Q.42. The National Human Right Commission is an independent commission, set up by the law
in the year :
(a) 1993 (b) 1995 (c) 1999 (d) 2001
Ans. (a)
Q.43. Which of the following Fundamental Rights prohibits traffic in human beings?
(a) Right against exploitation (b) Right to equality
(c) Right to freedom of religion (d) Right to freedom
Ans. (a)
Q.44. Which of these is not a freedom available under the ‘Right to Freedom’ in India?
(a) Freedom of speech and expression
(b) Freedom to incite people to rebel against the government
(c) Freedom to assemble in a peaceful manner
(d) Freedom to form associations and unions
Ans. (b)
Q.45. Which among the following is correct regarding PIL?
(a) Public Interest Legislature (b) Public Interest Litigation
(c) Public Information Litigation (d) Public Information Legislature
Ans. (b)
Q.46. Which one of the following is not true regarding the Fundamental Rights?
(a) Men and women government employees get the same salary.
(b) Christian missionaries set up a chain of missionary schools
(c) Workers from Uttar Pradesh go to Punjab to work on the farms.
(d) Parents property is inherited by the children.
Ans. (d)
Q.47. Which of the following freedoms is not available to an Indian citizen?
(a) Freedom to criticise the government (b) Freedom to participate in armed rebellion
(c) Freedom to reside in any part of the country
(d) All the above
Ans. (b)
Q.48. Which of these is not allowed under the Culture and Educational Right in India?
(a) Every cultural group has the right to protect its language and culture.
(b) Admissions can be denied on the basis of religion and culture in government aided educational organisations set up by cultural groups.
(c) All minority groups have the right to establish educational institutions of their choice.
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
Q.49. Which one of the following is not a Political Right?
(a) Right to contest election (b) Right to vote
(c) Right to seek any political office (d) Right to freedom
Ans. (d)
Q.50. Which of the following practices is against the secular philosophy of the country?
(a) To propagate one’s religion (b) To change one’s religion
(c) To offer religious instruction in government schools
(d) To practice a religion of choice
Ans. (c)
Q.51. If anyone violates our Fundamental Rights we can directly approach the :
(a) Prime Minister (b) Supreme Court (c) President (d) Vice President
Ans. (b)
Q.52. Which fundamental rights ensures the ban on bonded labour?
(a) Right against exploitation (b) Right to freedom
(c) Right to constitutional remedies (d) Right to equality
Ans. (a)
Q.53. Which of the following was not relevant to the prisoners of Guantanamo Bay?
(a) The governments of their countries were not informed of their arrests
(b) Families and UN representatives were allowed to meet them
(c) There was no proper trial before a magistrate
(d) They were kept in prison even after they were officially declared ‘not guilty’
Ans. (b)

Class IX - Working of the Institutions



Multiple Choice Questions
Q.1. What is meant by ‘Office Memorandum’?
(a) Order issued by the Government of India (b) Memoirs of the leaders of the past
(c) Important defence documents (d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
Q.2. When was the Second Backward Class Commission appointed?
(a) 1989 (b) 1979 (c) 1999 (d) 2001
Ans. (b)
Q.3. Why did people react strongly to the Mandal Commission Report?
(a) It left out many backward communities (b) It affected thousands of job opportunities
(c) Some high castes wanted to be included in it
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Ans. (b)
Q.4. What do the Civil Servants do?
(a) They take important policy decisions (b) They implement the ministers’ decisions
(c) They settle the disputes (d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
Q.5. What is ‘Parliament’?
(a) Assembly of elected representatives at the national level
(b) A body consisting of appointed ministers
(c) Body comprising judges (d) Assembly of only appointed members
Ans. (a)
Q.6. Which of these are correct so far as powers of the Parliament are concerned, apart from making laws?
(a) Exercising control over the government (b) Controlling finance of the country
(c) Serving as the highest forum of discussion and debate
(d) All the above
Ans. (d)
Q.7. Apart from Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, who else constitutes the Parliament?
(a) Prime Minister (b) Chief Minister (c) Governor (d) President
Ans. (d)
Q.8. What happens if there is a difference of opinion between Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha over an ordinary bill?
(a) The President decides the matter (b) The will of Rajya Sabha prevails
(c) There is a joint sitting of the two Houses (d) The bill is cancelled
Ans. (c)
Q.9. For how long can the Rajya Sabha delay a Money Bill?
(a) 15 days (b) 1 month (c) 3 months  (d) 14 days
Ans. (d)
Q.10. Who is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha?
(a) Speaker (b) Vice President (c) President (d) Prime Minister
Ans. (a)
Q.11. Two features of Indian judicial system are:
(a) Independent Judiciary (b) Integrated Judiciary (c) Dependent Judiciary (d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
Q.12. Which of these disputes can the Supreme Court take?
(a) Between citizens of the country (b) Between citizens and the government
(c) Between two or more state governments (d) All the above
Ans. (d)
Q.13. Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts?
(a) President, according to his own wishes (b) President, on the advice of the PM
(c) President on the advice of the PM in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
Q.14. How can a judge of the Supreme Court be removed?
(a) By the Supreme Court itself (b) By the Parliament through impeachment
(c) By the President alone (d) By the Police
Ans. (b)
Q.15. What is the power of the Supreme Court to judge the constitutional validity of a law passed by the Parliament or an action of the Executive called?
(a) Judicial Revision (b) Judicial Review (c) Judicial Consent (d) Judicial Permission
Ans. (b)
Q.16. Which of the following institutions can make changes to the existing law of the country?
(a) The Supreme Court (b) The President (c) The Prime Minister (d) The Parliament
Ans. (d)
Q.17. What does the Supreme Court say over the Parliament’s power of amendment of the Constitution?
(a) Parliament can amend the entire Constitution
(b) Parliament can amend only the basic structure of the Constitution
(c) Parliament cannot amend the basic structure of the Constitution
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
Q.18. Which body acts as the guardian of Fundamental Rights?
(a) District Courts (b) Supreme Court (c) Election Commission (d) Legislature
Ans. (b)
Q.19. What is a Public Interest Litigation?
(a) Filing a case in the court in the interest of the public
(b) Reviewing of Supreme Court judgements
(c) Procedure of removal of a judge (d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
Q.20. What are the two types of ‘Executives’ in India?
(a) Political Executive (b) Permanent Executive (c) Judicial Executive (d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
Q.21. Why does the political executive have more powers than the permanent executive?
(a) Because hardly any expertise is required in taking policy decisions
(b) Because political executive consists of the direct representatives of the people
(c) Political leaders are more educated (d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
Q.22. Who holds the most important and powerful position in the government?   
(a) President (b) Vice President (c) Prime Minister (d) Speaker
Ans. (c)
Q.23. Whom does the President appoint as the Prime Minister?
(a) Anyone he likes (b) Leader of the majority party
(c) MP who has secured the largest number of votes
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
Q.24. What is the tenure of office of the Prime Minister?
(a) 5 years (b) 6 years (c) As long as he wants (d) He does not have a fixed tenure
Ans. (d)
Q.25. What is the government formed by an alliance of two or more political parties called?
(a) Cooperation government (b) Coalition government 
(c) Consensus government (d) Cooperative government
Ans. (b)
Q.26. Who among the following is a part of the political executive?
(a) Home Minister (b) District Collector
(c) Secretary of the Ministry of Home Affairs
(d) Director General of Police
Ans. (a)
Q.27. Which organ of the government has the power to interpret the Constitution?
(a) Supreme Court (b) District Court (c) High Court (d) Both (a) and (c)
Ans. (a)
Q.28. About how many ministers are there in the Cabinet?
(a) 80 (b) 60 (c) 20 (d) 10
Ans. (c)
Q.29. Which of these options is/are correct regarding the powers of the Prime Minister?
(a) He chairs the Cabinet meetings
(b) He distributes work to the different departments
(c) He can dismiss ministers (d) All the above
Ans. (d)
Q.30. What is the position of the President?
(a) Nominal head of the state (b) Real head of the state 
(c) Hereditary head of the state (d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
Q.31. Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) The Judiciary safeguards the laws (b) The Legislature implements the laws
(c) The political executives are more powerful than the permanent executives
(d) The permanent executives comprises the civil servants
Ans. (b)
Q.32. The Council of Ministers at the centre is responsible to :
(a) The President (b) The Prime Minister  (c) The Rajya Sabha (d) The Lok Sabha
Ans. (d)
Q.33. The president of India is elected by
(a) Direet Election by citizens ... 18 yers of age           (b) Indirect Election by the Electoral College
(c) The Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers    (d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
Q.34. President of India is :
(a) Head of the Government (b) Head of the State (c) Head of the parliament (d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
Q.35. The judges of Supreme Court are appointed by :
(a) President (b) Prime Minister (c) Chief Justice (d) Law Minister
Ans. (a)

Friday 28 December 2012

Class IX - History and Sport : The Story of Cricket


Ppt on The Story of Cricket, the most interesting chapter for the students from class IX History, with this ppt I have tried to present this chapter in a more interesting manner.Hope You would like that !
http://www.slideshare.net/viduvinodkumar/the-story-of-cricket-15784662

Class IX - Electoral Politics



MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
  Q.1.  Who led the ‘Nyaya Yudh’?
(a) Chaudhary Charan Singh (b) Chaudhary Devi Lal (c) Ajit Singh (d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
Q.2. What was the promise Devi Lal made to the farmers and small businessmen?
(a) He would waive the loans of farmers and small businessmen
(b) He would lessen the rate of interest on their loans
(c) He would modernise agriculture
(d) He would provide free seeds and pesticides to them
Ans. (a)
Q.3. Which of the following statements about the reasons for conducting elections are false?
(a) Elections enable people to judge the performance of the government
(b) People elect the representatives of their choice in an election
(c) Elections enable people to evaluate the performance of the judiciary
(d) Elections enable people to indicate which policies they prefer
Ans. (c)
Q.4. Which of these is not a feature of Indian democracy?
(a) India has the largest number of voters in the world
(b) India’s Election Commission is very powerful
(c) In India, everyone above the age of 18 has a right to vote
(d) In India, the losing parties refuse to accept the electoral verdict
Ans. (d)
Q.5. Which of these choices are made by voters in elections to a representative democracy?
(a) Voters can choose who will make laws for them
(b) They can choose who will form the government
(c) They can choose the party whose policies will guide the government
(d) All the above
Ans. (d)
Q.6. Which of these is not a condition of a democratic election?
(a) Everyone is allowed to vote                                        (b) There are political parties to contest elections
(c) The candidate not preferred by people gets elected     (d) Elections are held at regular intervals
Ans. (c)
Q.7. What is meant by the term ‘constituency’?
(a) Place where the copy of constitution is kept
(b) A particular area from where voters elect a representative to the Lok Sabha / Vidhan Sabha
(c) A body of voters
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
Q.8. Which of the options below are the demerits of the electoral competition?
(a) Creates a sense of factionalism (b) Parties use dirty tricks to win elections
(c) Parties respect each other (d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
Q.9. In India, elections for which of these bodies are held after every five years?
(a) Rajya Sabha (b) Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha (c) Vidhan Parishad (d) Only Lok Sabha
Ans. (b)
Q.10. Elections held after the term of 5 years of Lok Sabha are called
(a) Mid-term elections (b) General elections (c) By-elections (d) Special elections
Ans. (b)
Q.11. What is an election held for only one constituency to fill the vacancy caused due to the death or resignation of a member called?
(a) By-election (b) Mid-term election (c) General election (d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
Q.12. Into how many constituencies is the country divided for Lok Sabha elections?
(a) 544 (b) 543 (c) 560 (d) 535
Ans. (b)
Q.13. Constituencies called ‘wards’ are made for the election to
(a) Parliament (b) State Legislative Assembly 
(c) State Legislative Council (d) Panchayats and municipal bodies
Ans. (d)
Q.14. Which of these options is not correct?
(a) In an open electoral competition, certain weaker sections may not get elected
(b) Resources, education and contacts may be lacking in their case
(c) Influential people may prevent them from winning elections
(d) Influential people help certain weaker sections in winning elections.
Ans. (d)
Q.15. How many seats are reserved in Lok Sabha for the Scheduled Tribes?
(a) 40 (b) 41 (c) 51 (d) 71
Ans. (b)
Q.16. How many seats are reserved for women in rural and urban local bodies?
(a) 1/2  of the seats (b)1/3 of the seats (c) 2/3 of the seats (d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
Q.17. Which of these is not a part of the district and local level bodies?
(a) Panchayats (b) Municipalities (c) Corporations (d) Lok Sabha
Ans. (d)
Q.18. Which of the options given below are applicable to the principle of Universal Adult Franchise?
(a) Only rich and educated can vote (b) Only men can vote
(c) All citizens aged 18 and above can vote (d) Only employed people can vote
Ans. (c)
Q.19. For voting, the voter has to show which of these as identity proof?
(a) Ration card (b) Driving license (c) Election Photo Identity Card (EPIC) (d) Any of these
Ans. (d)
Q.20. What is the minimum age required to contest an election to Lok Sabha?
(a) 20 years (b) 18 years (c) 25 years (d) 30 years
Ans. (c)
Q.21. What are the details the candidates have to give in the legal declaration before contesting the elections?
(a) Serious criminal cases pending against them
(b) Details of assets and liabilities of the candidate and his or her family
(c) Educational qualification of the candidate (d) All the above
Ans. (d)
Q.22. What is a set of norms and guidelines, which is to be followed by political parties and contesting candidates during the election time, called?
(a) Discipline Roll (b) Code of Conduct (c) Conduct rules (d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (b)
Q.23. Which of these is permitted under the Code of Conduct for election campaign?
(a) Use of place of worship for election propaganda
(b) Use of government vehicle for elections (c) Use of media
(d) Once elections are announced, making any promises of providing public facilities
Ans. (c)
Q.24. Which candidate is declared elected?
(a) One who secures the highest number of votes from a constituency
(b) One who secures two-third majority 
(c) One who secures 1/4 of the total votes cast
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
Q.25. Name the body which conducts the elections in India.
(a) Supreme Court (b) Parliament (c) Cabinet (d) Election Commission
Ans. (d)
Q.26. How is the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) chosen?
(a) Appointed by the President (b) Elected by the people
(c) Elected by the MPs (d) Elected by MPs and MLAs
Ans. (a)
Q.27. When on election duty, under whose control do the government officers work?
(a) Central Government (b) Election Commission (c) District Magistrate (d) District Court
Ans. (b)
Q.28. Which of these powers is/are exercised by the Election Commission to ensure free and fair elections?
(a) Election Commission tightens norms for poll expenses
(b) Election Commission orders repoll in 398 booths
(c) Election Commission appoints new Haryana DGP
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
Q.29. In India, who votes in a larger proportion in the elections?
(a) Poor and illiterate (b) Rich and privileged (c) Educated people (d) Women
Ans. (a)
Q.30. What does the term ‘incumbent’ mean?
(a) The current holder of a political office                    (b) The candidate contesting the election
(c) The outgoing candidate of the dissolved House      (d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
Q.31. An electoral malpractice in which a person assumes the identity of another for unlawful purposes is :
(a) Incumbent (b) Rigging (c) Impersonation (d) Turnact
Ans. (c)
Q.32. The Election Commission is :
(a) An elected body (b) An appointed body (c) An independent body (d) Both (b) and (c)
Ans. (d)
Q.33. Which among the following is not correct? 
(a) The Election Commission conducts all elections for the Parliament and Assemblies
(b) The Election Commission directs and controls the preparation of electoral roll
(c) The Election Commission cannot fix the election dates
(d) The Election Commission does scrutiny of nomination papers
Ans. (c)
Q.34. Which of the following is not allowed while carrying out election campaign?
(a) Giving money to voters to cast vote for candidates        (b) Using TV channels
(c) Door to door canvassing                                              (d) Contacting voters on phone
Ans. (a)
Q.35. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) All citizens above the age of 21 can vote in an election
(b) Every citizen has the right to vote regardless of caste religion or gender
(c) Some criminals and persons with unsound mind can be denied the right to vote in rare situations
(d) It is the responsibility of the government to get the names of all eligible voters put in the voters list.
Ans. (a)
Q.36. ‘‘Save Democracy’’ slogan was given by which  of the following political party in 1977 Lok Sabha elections? 
(a) Congress Party (b) Janata Party (b) Telugu Desam Party (d) Left Front
Ans. (b)
Q.37. What is the age of a person who can contest election for the Lok Sabha in India?
(a) 25 years (b) 30 years (c) 35 years (d) 40 years
Ans. (a)
Q.38. In our country, elections are conducted by an independent and powerful body which is
known as:
(a) Election Commission (b) Parliament (c) Judiciary (d) Lok Sabha
Ans. (a)
Q.39. Voter’s List is also known as:
(a) Election Number (b) Voter Identity Card (c) Electoral Roll (d) None of these
Ans. (c)
Q.40. What is the tenure of the Lok Sabha?
(a) 9 years (b) 4 years (c) 5 years (d) 6 years
Ans. (c)
Q.41. Which one of the following provisions fails to ensure fair and equal chance to compete
to candidates and political parties?
(a) No party or candidate can bribe or threaten voters
(b) No party or candidate is bound by the model code of conduct
(c) No party of candidates can use government resources for election campaign
(d) Nobody can appeal to voters in the name of caste or religion
Ans. (b)
Q.42. Which of the following statements is against the democratic process of elections?
(a) Parties and candidates should be free to contest elections
(b) Elections must be held regularly immediately after the term is over
(c) The right to vote should be given to the selected people only
(d) Elections should be conducted in a free and fair manner
Ans. (c)
Q.43. Which state has the largest vidhan sabha in the country?
(a) Maharashtra (b) U.P. (Uttar Pradesh) (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) West Bengal
Ans. (b)
Q.44. Reserved Constituencies ensures:
(a) Right to equality                                                              (b) Proper representation to all religious groups
 (c) Proper representation to the weaker sections of society  (d) None of these
Ans. (c)
Q.45. Which of the following has the largest Lok Sabha constituency in India?
(a) Maharashtra (b) U.P. (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Bihar
Ans. (b)
Q.46. Who has given the slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’?
(a) Indira Gandhi (b) Rajiv Gandhi (c) Sonia Gandhi (d) Pt. Nehru
Ans. (a)
Q.47. The number of Lok Sabha constituencies at present is :
(a) 541 (b) 546 (c) 543 (d) 540
Ans. (c)
Q.48. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) The Chief Justice of India (b) The Prime Minister of India
(c) The President of India (d) The people of India
Ans. (c)
Q.49. Who is responsible for free and fair elections in India?
(a) Prime Minister (b) President (c) Election Commissioner (d) Council of Ministers
Ans. (c)
Q.50. The number of seats reserved for Scheduled Castes in the Lok Sabha is:
(a) 59 (b) 79 (c) 89 (d) 99
Ans. (b)
Q.51. Election Commission of India is appointed by:
(a) The Parliament (b) The Prime Minister
(c) The President of India (d) The Supreme Court
Ans.
Q.52. Election Commissioner in India is appointed for a period of:
(a) 4 years (b) 7 years (c) 6 years (d) 5 years
Ans.
Q.53. What is the Electoral Roll? 
(a) The list of those who are eligible to vote
(b) The list of those who are contesting election
(c) The list of those who are not eligible to vote
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
Q.54. Which of the following does not include election procedure?
(a) Voting (b) Nomination of candidates (c) Booth capturing (d) Canvassing
Ans. (c)
Q.55. When government officers work in election duty, they work under the control of:
(a) The Government (b) Election Commission (c) The Parliament (d) The Judiciary
Ans. (b)
Q.56. Which is the new reform introduced in the electoral process by the Election Commission?
(a) Indelible ink (b) Electronic voting machine
(c) Polling booths (d) Voters’ list
Ans. (b)
Q.57. What is the minimum age of voters in India? [2011 (T-2)]
(a) 18 years (b) 25 years (c) 21 years (d) 20 years
Ans. (a)
Q.58. A ballot paper is a sheet of paper which contains the names of the: [2011 (T-2)]
(a) voters (b) contesting candidates
(c) polling officials (d) party workers
Ans. (b)
Q.59. A set of norms and guidelines to be followed by political parties and candidates during
elections is called: [2011 (T-2)]
(a) Constituency (b) Rigging (c) Code  of conduct (d) Turnout
Ans. (c)
Q.60. The boundaries of a constituency is decided on the basis of: [2011 (T-2)]
(a) population (b) culture (c) language (d) number of villages
Ans. (a)14
GOYAL BROTHERS PRAKASHAN
Q.61. Which one of the following help to check the quality of the election process? [2011 (T-2)]
(a) election campaign (b) reservation of seats for women
(c) Independent and powerful Election Commission (d) Normination of candidates
Ans. (c)
Q.62. Which of the following statements about the reasons for conducting elections is false?
[2011 (T-2)]
(a) Elections enable people to judge the performance of the government
(b) People select the representatatives of their choice in an election
(c) Elections enable people to evaluate the performance of the judiciary
(d) People can indicate which policies they prefer
Ans. (c)
Q.63. The number of ‘Reserved Seats’ for Scheduled Castes and Tribes in the Lok Sabha is
according to : [2011 (T-2)]
(a) their population share (b) the decision of the Election Commission
(c) the decision of all political parties (d) None of these
Ans. (a)
Q.64. Which of these is not a feature of Universal Adult Franchise in India? [2011 (T-2)]
(a) Every citizen should have one vote (b) Each vote should have equal value
(c) Every adult citizen has the right to vote
(d) Every voter should be educated upto primary level
Ans. (d)

Class IX - Poverty as a Challenge



MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
Q.1. Every _________ person in India is poor.
(a) third (b) fourth (c) fifth (d) sixth
Ans. (b)
Q.2. Vulnerability to poverty is determined by the options for finding an alternative living in terms of
(a) assets (b) education (c) health (d) all the above
Ans. (d)
Q.3. Social exclusion denies certain individuals the
(a) facilities (b) benefits (c) opportunities (d) all the above
Ans. (d)
Q.4. How many people in India live below the poverty line?
(a) 30 crores (b) 26 crores (c) 28 crores (d) 24 crores
Ans. (b)
Q.5. Which organisation carries out survey for determining the poverty line?
(a) NSSO (b) CSO (c) Planning Commission (d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
Q.6. Which social group is most vulnerable to poverty in India?
(a) Scheduled castes (b) Scheduled tribes (c) Casual labourers (d) All the above
Ans. (d)
Q.7. Which two states of India continue to be the poorest states?
(a) Madhya Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir (b) Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand
(c) Orissa, Bihar (d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
Q.8. Poverty line in rural areas is (As per 1999 – 2000 prices)
(a) Rs 328 (b) Rs. 370 (c) Rs 454 (d) Rs. 460
Ans. (a)
Q.9. Who are the poorest of the poor?
(a) Women (b) Old people (c) Children (d) All the above
Ans. (d)
Q.10. What is the poverty ratio in the state of Orissa?
(a) 50% (b) 47% (c) 60% (d) 57%
Ans. (b)
Q.11. In which state has the high agricultural growth helped to reduce poverty?
(a) Jammu & Kashmir (b) West Bengal (c) Punjab (d) Gujarat
Ans. (c)
Q.12. In which state have the land reform measures helped to reduce poverty?
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Punjab (c) West Bengal (d) Kerala
Ans. (c)
Q.13. Which state has focused more on human resource development?
(a) Gujarat (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Maharashtra (d) Kerala
Ans. (d)
Q.14. In which state is the public distribution system responsible for the reduction in poverty?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
Q.15. What is the main cause of poverty in India?
(a) High income inequalities (b) Less job opportunities (c) High growth in population (d) All the above
Ans. (d)
Q.16. Which of the following is responsible for high poverty rates?
(a) Huge income inequalities (b) Unequal distribution of land 
(c) Lack of effective implementation of land reforms (d) All the above
Ans. (d)
Q.17. In rural areas, which of the following are not poor?
(a) Landless agricultural workers (b) Backward classes (c) Rural artisans (d) Medium farmers
Ans. (d)
Q.18. Nutritional level of food energy is expressed in the form of
(a) calories per day (b) wheat consumption (c) rice consumption per day (d) none of the above
Ans. (a)
Q.19. As per Planning Commission, minimum daily intake of calories for determining poverty line for rural area is
(a) 2100 (b) 2400 (c) 1500 (d) none of the above
Ans. (b)
Q.20. Poverty ratio in India as compared to Pakistan is
(a) same (b) half (c) two times (d) two and a half times
Ans. (c)
Q.21. What are accepted average calories required in India in urban areas?
(a) 2100 (b) 2400 (c) 2800 (d) 2500
Ans. (b)
Q.22. Who is considered as poor? 
(a) A rich landlord (b) A businessman (c) A landless labourer (d) A teacher
Ans. (c)
Q.23. Which among the following is the method to estimate the poverty line?
(a) Investment method (b) Income method (c) Capital method (d) Human method
Ans. (b)
Q.24. Which state has the largest percentage of poors in India?
(a) Bihar (b) Orissa (c) Kerala (d) Punjab
Ans. (b)
Q.25. When was National Rural Employment Guarantee Act passed?
(a) September 2005 (b) August 2004 (c) May 2009 (d) None of these
Ans. (a)
Q.26. Who advocated that India would be truly independent only when the poorest of its people become free of human suffering ?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Indira Gandhi (c) Jawahar lal Nehru (d) Subhash Chandra Bose
Ans. (a)
Q.27. Which of the following programmes was launched in the year 2000?
(a) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (b) Prime Minister Rojgar Yojana
(c) Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojna (d) Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana
Ans. (d)
Q.28. Who do not come under the category of urban poor?
(a) The casual workers (b) The unemployed (c) The shopkeepers (d) Rickshawpullers
Ans. (c)
Q.29. How many percent of Indian people were poor in the year 2000?
(a) 36% (b) 46% (c) 26% (d) 29%
Ans. (c)
Q.30. Which scheme was started in 1993 to create self-employment opportunities for educated unemployed youth in rural areas and small towns? 
(a) Prime Minister Rojgar Yojana (b) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(c) Rural Employment Generation Programme (d) Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana
Ans. (a)
Q.31. For how many days NREGA provides employment?
(a) 70 (b) 80 (c) 90 (d) 100
Ans. (d)
Q.32. Which one of the social groups are vulnerable to poverty?
(a) Scheduled caste (b) Urban casual labour (c) Rural agricultural households (d) All the above
Ans. (d)
Q.33. By which year governments are aiming to meet the Milennium Development Goals including halving the rate of global poverty? 
(a) 2011 (b) 2015 (c) 2045 (d) 2035
Ans. (b)
Q.34. Which one is not the major causes of income inequality in India? [2011 (T-2)]
(a) Unequal distribution of land (b) Lack of fertile land 
(c) Gap between rich and the poor (d) Increase in population
Ans. (b)
Q.35. In which of the following countries did poverty actually rise from 1981 to 2001?
(a) Sub-Saharan Africa (b) India (c) China (d) Russia
Ans. (a)
Q.36. The calorie requirement is higher in the rural areas because :
(a) they do not enjoy as much as people in the urban areas. (b) food items are expensive.
(c) they are engaged in mental work. (d) people are engaged in physical labour.
Ans. (d)
Q.37. Which of the following is an indicator of poverty in India?
(a) Income level (b) Illiteracy level (c) Employment level (d) All of these
Ans. (d)
Q.38. Which of the following is not a valid reason for the poverty alleviation programme in India?
(a) Lack of proper implementation (b) Lack of right targeting
(c) Corruption at the highest level (d) Overlapping of schemes
Ans. (c)
Q.39. Which industry suffered the most during colonial period?
(a) Jute (b) Textile (c) Indigo (d) All the above
Ans. (a)
Q.40. Poverty ratio in which of the following states is above the national average?
(a) West Bengal (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Karnataka
Ans. (a)
Q.41. Which of the following is not considered a social indicator of poverty?
(a) Less number of means of transport (b) Illiteracy level
(c) Lack of access to health care (d) Lack of job opportunities
Ans. (a)
Q.42. Full form of NFWP is :
(a) National Federation for Work and Progress (b) National Forest for Wildlife Protection
(c) National Food and Wheat Processing (d) National Food for Work Programme
Ans. (d)
Q.43. Which country of South-East Asia made rapid economic growth resulting in a significant decline in poverty?
(a) India (b) China (c) Nepal (d) Pakistan
Ans. (b)
Q.44. In which part of the world poverty has remained the same during 1981 to 2001?
(a) South Asia (b) Sub-Saharan Asia (c) China (d) Latin America
Ans. (d)
Q.45. Which of the following states has the poverty ratio below the national average?
(a) West Bengal (b) Uttar  Pradesh (c) Assam (d) Maharashtra
Ans. (d)
Q.46. The current anti-poverty programme consists of two planks. They are:
(a) Socio-economic reasons and public distribution system.
(b) Promotion of economic growth and targeted anti-poverty programme.
(c) Anti-poverty programme and public distribution system.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (b)
Q.47. According to World Bank, poverty is measured by:
(a) People living below Rs. 100 per day (b) People living below 1$ per day
(c) People living below Rs. 550 per month (d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
Q.48. Kerala has tried to control poverty by:
(a) Investing in human resource (b) Investing in medical science
(c) Investing in infrastructure (d) None of the above
Ans. (a)

Class IX - Food Security in India



NCERT TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS
Questions Within The Lesson
Q.1. (a) Why is agriculture a seasonal activity?
(b) Why is Ramu unemployed for about four months in a year?
(c) What does Ramu do when he is unemployed?
(d) Who are supplementing income in Ramu’s family?
(e) Why does Ramu face difficulty when he is unable to get work?
(f) When is Ramu food insecure?
Ans. (a) Agriculture is a seasonal occupation because farmars remain out of work for 4 to 5 months in a year.
(b) Because Ramu works as a casual labourer in agriculture. Agriculture being a seasonal activity, Ramu gets works only during the times of sowing, transplanting and harvesting. He remains unemployed for about 4 months during the period of plant cultivation and maturing in a year.
(c) He looks for work in other activities such as construction activities, brick laying etc. in the village.
(d) Ramu’s three sons and food grower also work on the field. His wife works as a house cleaner for the livestock, removing and managing cow dung.
(e) Ramu is food insecure during 4 months when he remains unemployed.

Q.2. (a) Does Ahmed have a regular income from rickshaw-pulling?
(b) How does the yellow card help Ahmed run his family even with small earnings from
rickshaw-pulling?
Ans. (a) No, Ahmed's earning from rickshaw-pulling fluctuates every day.
(b) With his yellow card, Ahmed gets sufficient quantity of wheat, rice, sugar and kerosene oil for his daily requirements. He gets these essential items at half of the market price. In this way, Ahmed is able to manage   his family even with small earnings.

Q.3. Graph 4.1 : Production of Food grains in India (Million Tonnes)
Source : Economic Survey 2004-05.
Study the Graph 4.1 and answer the following questions :
(a) In which year did our country cross the 200 million tonnes per year mark in food grain produciton?
(b) In which decade did India experience the highest decadal increase in food grain production?
(c) Is production increase consistent in India since 2000-01?
Ans. (a) In 2001-02 (212.9 million tonnes) in 20.3-04 (213.5 million tonnes)
(b) During 1980-81 to 1990-91
(c) No.

Q.4. Graph 4.2 : Central Food grains (Wheat + Rice) Stock and Minimum Buffer Norm (Million Tonnes)
Study the Graph 4.2 and answer the following questions :
1. In which recent year food grain stock with the government was maximum?
2. What is the minimum buffer stock norm for the FCI?
3. Why were the FCI granaries overflowing with food grains?
Ans. 1. In 2002
2. 24.3 million tonnes
3. Because poor people were not able to buy food.

QUESTIONS IN THE EXERCISE
Q.1. When is food security ensured ?
Ans. Food security is ensured under the following conditions :
(a) When food is available in adequate quantity as well as quality to meet nutritional requirements.
(b) When food is within the reach of every person.
(c) When an individual has enough money to buy sufficient, safe and nutritious food to meet one’s dietary needs.

Q.2. Which are the people more prone to food insecurity? [Important]
Ans. People more prone to food insecurity are :
(i) Landless and small farmers
(ii) Traditional artisans
(iii) Providers of traditional services
(iv) Petty self-employed persons and
(v) Beggars

Q.3. Which states are more food insecure in India?
Ans. More food insecure states of India: The states of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh, parts of Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra are more food-insecure in India.

Q.4. Do you believe that Green Revolution has made India self-sufficient in foodgrains? How?
Ans. After Independence, Indian policy-makers adopted all possible measures to achieve self-sufficiency in food grains. India adopted a new strategy in agriculture which resulted in the Green Revolution. Green Revolution took place especially in the production of wheat and rice. The core of this new strategy was the use of HYV seeds along with chemical fertilizer and assured water supplies. As a result, total production of foodgrains increased from 50.8 million tonnes in 1950-51 to 212.0 million tonnes in 2003-04. The largest contribution came from wheat, whose production rose from 6.4 million tonnes to 72.1 million tonnes.

Q.5. A section of people in India are still without food. Explain.
Ans. Despite large increase in foodgrain production we find people without food in India. Poor
people suffer from chronic hunger. They find themselves unable to buy food. Over one-fifth
of the country’s population still suffers from chronic hunger.

Q.6. What happens to the supply of food when there is a disaster or a calamity?
Ans. The supply of food is adversely affected during a natural calamity or disaster. Due to a natural calamity, say drought, the production of food grains is less and hence supply decreases.

Q.7. Differentiate between seasonal hunger and chronic hunger.
Ans. Hunger has seasonal and chronic dimensions. Seasonal hunger is a consequence of seasonal nature of work. For example, agriculture in India is seasonal occupation. Farm labourers remain out of work during some months of the year. Hence, during off-season poor people are not able to buy food. On the other hand, chronic hunger exists among people who are not able to buy food because of their very low income. For example land less labourers earn very less to earn enough for food.

Q.8. What has our government done to provide food security for the poor? Discuss any two schemes launched by the government.
Ans. Our government has undertaken a number of measures to provide food security for the poor.
A brief account of these measures is given below :
1. Maintenance of Buffer Stock.  Our government maintains buffer stock of foodgrains through Food Corporation of India. The FCI purchases wheat and rice from the farmers in surplus states and stores in granaries.
2. Public Distribution System (PDS). The food procured by the FCI is distributed among the poor through ration shops. Presently, there are about 4.6 lakh ration shops in the country.
3. Nutritional Programmes.  In order to provide nutritional security, our government has launched various schemes. Mid-day meal scheme for schoolchildren, scheme for supply of foodgrains to scheduled castes/scheduled tribes and special nutrition programmes for pregnant/nursing mothers are examples of such schemes. In 2000, two special schemes were launched. One, Antyodaya Anna Yojana and second, the
Annapurna Schemes. The former relate to the poorest of the poor, while the latter targets indigent senior citizens.  The functioning of these two schemes was linked with the PDS.
Under AAY scheme, thirty-five kilograms of foodgrains are made available to each eligible family at a rate of Rs 2 per kg for wheat and Rs 3 per kg for rice.
Under APS, 10 kilograms of food grains is made available to eligible persons free of cost.

Q.9. Why is buffer stock created by the government?
Ans. The government creates buffer stock of foodgrains to protect the interest of both farmers as
well as consumers. Farmers’ interests are protected when they are assured to get a certain
minimum price for their crops. This price is called ‘minimum support price’.
The interests of the consumers are protected when the procured food is made available to the
consumers at subsidised rates. This task is done through fair price shops.

Q.10. Write notes on :
(a) Minimum Support Price
(b) Issue Price
(c) Fair Price Shops
Ans. (a) Minimum Support Price : With a view to provide incentives to the farmers for raising the production of their crops, the government announces price of some crops before the sowing season. The government remains ready to purchase their crops at these pre-announced prices. This price is called minimum support price (MSP).
(b) Issue Price : The purchased foodgrains are stored in granaries. This is done to distribute foodgrains
among the poorer section of the society. The government makes foodgrains available to the poor at a price much lower than the market price. This is known as issue price.
(c) Fair Price Shops : The food procured by the government is distributed among the poor. This task is done
through government regulated shops which are known as fair price shops.

Q.11. What are the problems of the functioning of ration shops?
Ans. There are various problem of the functioning of ration shops such as ;
1. Ration cards are issued only to those people who have their proper residential addresses.
Hence a large number of homeless poor fail to get ration from these shops.
2. The owners of these shops sell ration in the open market at higher prices.
3. Sometimes shopkeepers make bogus entries in the ration cards.

Q.12. Write a note on the role of cooperatives in providing food and related items.
Ans. Role of Cooperatives in providing food and related items is as follows:-
The cooperatives are playing an important role in food security in India, especially in the southern and western parts of the country. The cooperative societies set up shops to sell goods to the poor people at lower prices. For example, out of all fair price shops operating in Tamil Nadu, nearly 94 percent are being run by the cooperatives. In Delhi, Mother Dairy is providing milk and vegetables to the consumers at controlled prices which are decided by the Delhi Government. Amul  is another example in this regard. It has brought about the White Revolution in the country. There are many more cooperatives and NGOs also working intensively towards this direction.

Class IX - Food Security in India



MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 
Q.1. The worst affected groups in rural areas facing food insecurity are :
(a) landless people (b) traditional artisans (c) beggars (d) all the above
Ans. (d)
Q.2. MSP refers to :
(a) Minimum Support Price (b) Maximum Support Price (c) Marginal Support Price (d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
Q.3. Green Revolution in the 1960s was associated with :
(a) use of HYV seeds (b) tree plantation programme (c) fisheries development (d) none of the above
Ans. (a)
Q.4. Public Distribution System is associated with :
(a) fair price  shops (b) cooperative  stores (c) super bazars (d) none of the above
Ans. (a)
Q.5. Revamped Public Distribution System (RPDS) aimed to provide benefits to :
(a) cities (b) remote and backward areas (c) self-help groups (d) cooperative societies
Ans. (b)
Q.6. White Revolution of the country is associated with :
(a) sugar (b) milk (c) paper (d) none of the above
Ans. (b)
Q.7. Annapurna Scheme (APS) meets the food requirements of :
(a) indigent senior citizens (b) children (c) pregnant ladies (d) young persons
Ans. (a)
Q.8. Antyodaya cards are related to
(a) all poors (b) poorest of the poor (c) persons below poverty line (d) none of the above
Ans. (b)
Q.9. Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) and Annapurna Scheme (APS) are linked with :
(a) public distribution system (b) mid-day meal
(c) special nutrition programme (d) none of the above
Ans. (a)
Q.10. Under the Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS) foodgrains given per family per month is :
(a) 40 kg (b) 35 kg (c) 25 kg (d) 20 kg
Ans. (b)
Q.11. In which state 94% ration shops are run by cooperatives
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Orissa (d) Bihar
Ans. (b)
Q.12. Average consumption of PDS grains per person per month at all India level is :
(a) 1 kg (b) 4 kg (c) 300 gm (d) 500 gm
Ans. (a)
Q.13. The society which facilitated setting up of grain banks in different regions is :
(a) Amul (Gujarat) (b) Academy of Development Science (Maharashtra) 
(c) Mother Dairy (Delhi) (d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
Q.14. Minimum Support Price (MSP) is announced by the government to provide :
(a) incentives to farmers for raising production (b) incentives to traders to earn maximum profit from farmers
(c) incentives to moneylenders to lend maximum to farmers (d) none of the above
Ans. (a)
Q.15. Seasonal hunger occurs in :
(a) urban areas (b) rural areas (c) metro cities (d) both (a) and (b)
Ans. (b)
Q.16. Which crop registered the largest increase in production as a result of Green Revolution?
(a) wheat (b) rice (c) maize (d) none of the above
Ans. (a)
Q.17. Main purpose of buffer stock scheme is :
(a) to save food grains from pest attack (b) to stop price fluctuations
(c) to meet the crisis of low production (d) both (b) and (c)
Ans. (d)
Q.18. Under Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY), subsidised rate for wheat is :
(a) Rs 3/- per kg (b) Rs 2/- per kg (c) Rs 4/- per kg (d) Rs 5/- per kg
Ans. (b)
Q.19. Food security means :
(a) availability of food (b) accessibility of food
(c) affordability of food (d) all the above
Ans. (d)
Q.20. Massive starvation takes place due to :
(a) rise in the price of essential commodities (b) decline in production of foodgrains
(c) drought (d) both (a) and (b)
Ans. (c)
Q.21. Chronic hunger refers to :
(a) low income (b) inadequate quantity of food (c) inadequate quality of food (d) all the above
Ans. (d)
Q.22. The most devastating famine occurred in India in 1943 in :
(a) Assam (b) Bengal (c) Bihar (d) Orissa
Ans. (b)
Q.23. In which of the following states do we find the largest number of food insecure people?
(a) Bihar, Jharkhand and Orissa (b) Bihar, Jharkhand and Gujarat
(c) Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Tamilnadu (d) Bihar, Chhattisgarh and Karnataka
Ans. (a)
Q.24. In which state of India, Amul Dairy is situated? 
(a) Rajasthan (b) Gujarat (c) Karnataka (d) Bihar
Ans. (b)
Q.25. Who released a special stamp entitled ‘Wheat Revolution’ in July 1968? 
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Indira Gandhi (c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Motilal Nehru
Ans. (b)
Q.26. The price that is announced before the sowing season is called: 
(a) Issue price (b) Fair price (c) Market price (d) Minimum support price
Ans. (d)
Q.27. To whom the yellow card is issued? [2011 (T-2)]
(a) To shop keeper (b) To land lord's (c) To government employee (d) People below the poverty line
Ans. (d)
Q.28. Which are the special target groups in Antyodaya Anna Yojana? 
(a) Poorest of the poor (b) Poor and non-poor (c) Backward class (d) None of these
Ans. (a)
Q.29. Food for Work Programme was launched in which of the following years?
(a) 2003 (b) 2001 (c) 2004 (d) 2005
Ans. (c)
Q.30. Kalahandi is situated in which of the following states? 
(a) Orissa (b) Punjab (c) Rajasthan (d) Bihar
Ans. (a)
Q.31. The Mother Dairy is an important cooperative in ___________ . 
(a) Gujarat (b) Punjab (c) Haryana (d) Delhi
Ans. (d)
Q.32. Women and children under the age of five are food insecure population due to :
(a) Malnutrition (b) Healthy diet (c) Fats (d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
Q.33. F.C.I. stands for 
(a) Foreign Co-operation with India (b) Food Corporation of India
(c) Fosilse Corporation of India (d) Food Coming to India
Ans. (b)
Q.34. Which among the following schemes was started in the year 2000 for the indigent senior citizens ?
(a) PDS (b) NFWP (c) SGSY (d) APS
Ans. (d)
Q.35. Name the cooperative that provides milk and vegetables controlled rate decided by the Government of Delhi: 
(a) Amul (b) Kendriya Bhandar (c) Mother Dairy (d) None of these
Ans. (c)
Q.36. Which among the following schemes was initiated for the poor in all areas?
(a) TPDS (b) RPDS (c) AAY (d) All of these
Ans. (d)
Q.37. Buffer stock is the stock of foodgrains procured by the government through
(a) IFCI (b) FCI (c) IDBI (d) FICCI
Ans. (b)
Q.38. In which part of the country, grain banks have been set up by NGO's? 
(a) Gujarat (b) Haryana (c) Punjab (d) Maharashtra
Ans. (d)
Q.39. When was the Antyodaya Anna Yojana scheme launched? 
(a) In Jan 1999 (b) In May 2000 (c) In Dec 2000 (d) In October 2005
Ans. (c)
Q.40. Percentage of seasonal as well as chronic hunger in India over the years has
(a) increased (b) decreased (c) remained constant (d) None of these
Ans. (b)
Q.41. The concept of ‘entitlements’ was introduced by : [2011 (T-2)]
(a) Pranab Mukharjee (b) Amartya Sen (c) Manmohan Singh (d) Sonia Gandhi
Ans. (b)
Q.42. Which institution was set up by  Maharashtra Academy of Development Science to facilitate a network of NGO's? 
(a) Gramin banks (b) Grain banks (c) Co-operative banks (d) Commercial banks
Ans. (b)
Q.43. Who is the nodal officer at district level?
(a) Commissioner (b) Superintendent of police (c) District officer (d) Collector
Ans. (d)
Q.44. In year 2000 which of the following programmes was launched? 
(a) APS (b) NREGA (c) PDS (d) PMGY
Ans. (a)
Q.45. In which of the following years was the food grain stock with the FCI the maximum?
(a) 2001 (b) 2009 (c) 2002 (d) 2000
Ans. (c)
Q.46. Which are the two places in Orissa where starvation deaths are reported? 
(a) Kalahandi and Puri (b) Kashipur and Bhubaneshwar 
(c) Kalahandi and Kashipur (d) Puri and Bhubaneshwar
Ans. (c)
Q.47. Which of the following places of Jharkhand witnessed starvation death recently?
(a) Dhanbad (b) Ranchi (c) Palamau (d) Puri
Ans. (c)
Q.48. In which year was the Integrated Child Development Service (ICDS) introduced?
(a) 1965 (b) 1975 (c) 1985 (d) 1995
Ans. (b)
Q.49. NREGA provides :
(a) 200-days of assured work (b) 100-days of assured work (c) No assured work (d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
Q.50. In which decades was the Rationing System introduced in India?
(a) 1940s (b) 1950s (c) 1960s (d) 1970s
Ans. (a)